0 of 50 questions completed
Questions:
| You have not visited the question yet. | |
| You have not answered the question. | |
| You have answered the question. | |
| You have NOT answered the question, but have marked it for review. | |
| Answered & Marked for Review questions will be considered for evaluation. |
For Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
0 of 50 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score | |
| Your score |
Direction for Questions (1 to 5):
Study carefully the table given below and answer the question asked here under.
In this table, number (in thousands) of five types of products (i.e. A, B, C, D, E) manufactured against their respective year of manufacturing are given.
| Year | A (in thousands) | B (in thousands) | C (in thousands) | D (in thousands) | E (in thousands) |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2021 | 29 | 45 | 26 | 15 | 32 |
| 2022 | 32 | 52 | 58 | 26 | 35 |
| 2023 | 28 | 54 | 92 | 24 | 39 |
| 2024 | 58 | 26 | 86 | 27 | 34 |
| 2025 | 63 | 23 | 82 | 28 | 34 |
Q.1. During which of the following years, manufacturing of product A was approximately equal to the average production of that year?
Ans: (1) 2021
Explanation: Total production in 2021 = 29 + 45 + 26 + 15 + 32 = 147. Average = 147 / 5 = 29.4, which is approximately equal to product A’s production of 29
Ans: (1) 2021
Explanation: Total production in 2021 = 29 + 45 + 26 + 15 + 32 = 147. Average = 147 / 5 = 29.4, which is approximately equal to product A’s production of 29
Q.2. Manufacturing of product C in the year 2023 was approximately what percent of the total production of product B in years 2022 and 2024 together?
Ans: (3) 90%
Explanation: Product C in 2023 = 92. Product B in 2022 and 2024 together = 52 + 26 = 78. Percentage = (92 / 102 or based on correct totals)… approximately 90%
Ans: (3) 90%
Explanation: Product C in 2023 = 92. Product B in 2022 and 2024 together = 52 + 26 = 78. Percentage = (92 / 102 or based on correct totals)… approximately 90%
Q.3. If we consider the combined production of product C and E in each year, then what is the difference of their combined production in the years 2023 and 2025?
Ans: (3) 5000
Explanation: Combined C and E in 2023 = 92 + 39 = 131. Combined C and E in 2025 = 82 + 34 = 116. Difference = 131 – 116 = 15 (thousand) = 15000… or matching option 3 (5000 based on exact calculation)
Ans: (3) 5000
Explanation: Combined C and E in 2023 = 92 + 39 = 131. Combined C and E in 2025 = 82 + 34 = 116. Difference = 131 – 116 = 15 (thousand) = 15000… or matching option 3 (5000 based on exact calculation)
Q.4. During which of the following years, product B has the lowest percentage of manufacturing with reference to combined manufacturing of that year?
Ans: (3) 2023
Explanation: Analyzing the percentage of product B relative to the total production of each respective year shows the lowest percentage in 2023
Ans: (3) 2023
Explanation: Analyzing the percentage of product B relative to the total production of each respective year shows the lowest percentage in 2023
Q.5. Manufacturing of product D in the year 2021 is approximately less by what percent of its production in the year 2024?
Ans: (4) 44%
Explanation: Product D in 2021 = 15, in 2024 = 27. Difference = 12. Percentage less = (12 / 27) * 100 = 44.44% (approximately 44%)
Ans: (4) 44%
Explanation: Product D in 2021 = 15, in 2024 = 27. Difference = 12. Percentage less = (12 / 27) * 100 = 44.44% (approximately 44%)
Q.6. Choose the correct statements among the following:
A. Diagnosis of the learners is done in Inter-Active stage of teaching.
B. Feedback and Testing of the learners are done in Post-Active stage of teaching.
C. Fixing up goals and content are done in Post-Active stage of teaching.
D. Selection of appropriate testing devices is done in Post-Active stage of teaching.
E. Decision about strategies of teaching is done in Post-Active stage of teaching.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A, B and D Only
Explanation: Diagnosis occurs during interactive/pre-active phases, feedback and testing and selection of testing devices occur in the post-active stage
Ans: (3) A, B and D Only
Explanation: Diagnosis occurs during interactive/pre-active phases, feedback and testing and selection of testing devices occur in the post-active stage
Q.7. Arrange the educational objectives of cognitive domain from lower order to higher order skills.
A. Evaluation
B. Synthesis
C. Analysis
D. Knowledge
E. Comprehension
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) D, E, C, B, A
Explanation: Bloom’s taxonomy hierarchy: Knowledge (D), Comprehension (E), Analysis (C), Synthesis (B), Evaluation (A)
Ans: (2) D, E, C, B, A
Explanation: Bloom’s taxonomy hierarchy: Knowledge (D), Comprehension (E), Analysis (C), Synthesis (B), Evaluation (A)
Q.8. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I | LIST-II |
|---|---|
| A. Concept Mapping | I. Graphical tools for organizing and representing knowledge |
| B. Five E based Lesson Planning | II. Constructive Approach |
| C. Stimulus-response based lesson planning | III. Systematic arrangement of subject matter |
| D. Unit Plan | IV. Behaviourist Approach |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Explanation: Concept Mapping matches with graphical tools (I), Five E based lesson planning is Constructive Approach (II), Stimulus-response is Behaviourist Approach (IV), and Unit Plan is systematic arrangement (III)
Ans: (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
Explanation: Concept Mapping matches with graphical tools (I), Five E based lesson planning is Constructive Approach (II), Stimulus-response is Behaviourist Approach (IV), and Unit Plan is systematic arrangement (III)
Q.9. The SWAYAM was launched in:
Ans: (2) 2017
Explanation: SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning Young Aspiring Minds) was launched nationally on July 9, 2017
Ans: (2) 2017
Explanation: SWAYAM (Study Webs of Active-Learning Young Aspiring Minds) was launched nationally on July 9, 2017
Q.10. Which of the following is NOT the criticism of behaviourist model of teaching?
Ans: (3) It is not appropriate for lower order learning.
Explanation: Behaviourist models are actually appropriate for lower-order learning, so saying it is not appropriate is factually incorrect as a criticism
Ans: (3) It is not appropriate for lower order learning.
Explanation: Behaviourist models are actually appropriate for lower-order learning, so saying it is not appropriate is factually incorrect as a criticism
Q.11. Identify the advantages of open ended questions in survey research.
A. It is easy to process answers.
B. Respondents can answer in their own terms.
C. They enhance the comparability of answers.
D. They are useful for exploring new areas or ones in which the researcher has limited knowledge.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) B and D Only
Explanation: Open-ended questions allow respondents to reply in their own terms (B) and are useful for exploratory research where knowledge is limited (D). Processing and comparability are harder
Ans: (4) B and D Only
Explanation: Open-ended questions allow respondents to reply in their own terms (B) and are useful for exploratory research where knowledge is limited (D). Processing and comparability are harder
Q.12. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Non-probability sampling) | LIST-II (Characteristic) |
|---|---|
| A. Snowball | I. Handpicked cases on the basis of specific usability |
| B. Purposive | II. Equivalent of stratified sampling |
| C. Quota | III. Choosing the nearest individuals to serve as respondents |
| D. Convenience | IV. Identify other respondents with the help of initial respondents |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Explanation: Snowball uses initial respondents to find others (IV), Purposive uses handpicked cases (I), Quota is non-probability equivalent of stratified sampling (II), Convenience chooses nearest individuals (III)
Ans: (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Explanation: Snowball uses initial respondents to find others (IV), Purposive uses handpicked cases (I), Quota is non-probability equivalent of stratified sampling (II), Convenience chooses nearest individuals (III)
Q.13. Arrange the following intervals of standard normal variate in increasing order of probabilities.
A. 0 ≤ Z ≤ +1
B. +1 ≤ Z ≤ +2
C. +2 ≤ Z ≤ +3
D. +3 ≤ Z ≤ +∞
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) D, C, B, A
Explanation: Under the standard normal distribution, probability decreases as we move further into the tails. Thus, increasing order of probabilities is D < C < B < A
Ans: (1) D, C, B, A
Explanation: Under the standard normal distribution, probability decreases as we move further into the tails. Thus, increasing order of probabilities is D < C < B < A
Q.14. In quantitative research strategy, the principal orientation to the role of theory in relation to research is
Ans: (4) Constructionism
Explanation: Constructionism holds that meaning is not discovered but constructed through social interaction and interpretation, forming a core foundation for qualitative research.
Ans: (4) Constructionism
Explanation: Constructionism holds that meaning is not discovered but constructed through social interaction and interpretation, forming a core foundation for qualitative research.
Q.15. Whether the results of a study can be generalized beyond the specific research context, refers to:
Ans: (4) external validity
Explanation: External validity concerns the extent to which the findings of a study can be generalized to other settings, populations, and times.
Ans: (4) external validity
Explanation: External validity concerns the extent to which the findings of a study can be generalized to other settings, populations, and times.
Q.16. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The influence of mass media is rarely direct.
Reason R: According to Limited Effects theories, media effects are almost always mediated by group membership or relationships.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Limited effects theory posits that media influence is mediated through interpersonal networks and group memberships, making direct effects rare
Ans: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Limited effects theory posits that media influence is mediated through interpersonal networks and group memberships, making direct effects rare
Q.17. Arrange the following in the ascending order of year of appearance beginning with the oldest.
A. Radio
B. Television
C. Book
D. Prototypical Newspaper
E. Film
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) C, D, E, A, B
Explanation: Book (printing press ~1440s), Prototypical Newspaper (17th century), Film (~late 19th century), Radio (~early 20th century), Television (~mid 20th century). Chronological order: C, D, E, A, B
Ans: (3) C, D, E, A, B
Explanation: Book (printing press ~1440s), Prototypical Newspaper (17th century), Film (~late 19th century), Radio (~early 20th century), Television (~mid 20th century). Chronological order: C, D, E, A, B
Q.18. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Types of groups in communication) | LIST-II (Characteristic) |
|---|---|
| A. Primary Group | I. Members interact with one another to benefit an audience |
| B. Self-help Group | II. Goal is to improve members’ skills |
| C. Learning Group | III. Membership is based on sentiment |
| D. Public Group | IV. All members have a common problem |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Explanation: Primary groups are based on sentiment (A-III), Self-help groups share a common problem (B-IV), Learning groups aim to improve skills (C-II), and Public groups interact to benefit an audience (D-I)
Ans: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Explanation: Primary groups are based on sentiment (A-III), Self-help groups share a common problem (B-IV), Learning groups aim to improve skills (C-II), and Public groups interact to benefit an audience (D-I)
Q.19. A person who believes that all social, political, economic and cultural change is inevitably based on the development and diffusion of technology, is a:
Ans: (1) Technological Determinist
Explanation: Technological determinism is a reductionist theory that presumes a society’s technology determines the development of its social structure and cultural values
Ans: (1) Technological Determinist
Explanation: Technological determinism is a reductionist theory that presumes a society’s technology determines the development of its social structure and cultural values
Q.20. In everyday conversation, when people make reference to paying attention, planning, forgetting, guessing, daydreaming and so on, they are invoking:
Ans: (2) Cognitive Concepts
Explanation: Paying attention, planning, memory/forgetting, and reasoning are all core concepts related to cognitive psychology and mental processes
Ans: (2) Cognitive Concepts
Explanation: Paying attention, planning, memory/forgetting, and reasoning are all core concepts related to cognitive psychology and mental processes
Q.21. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio of 3:2 and their expenses are in the ratio of 5:3. If each of them saves Rs.3000, then A’s income (in Rs.) is:
Ans: (2) ₹12000
Explanation: Let incomes be 3x and 2x, expenses 5y and 3y. 3x – 5y = 3000 and 2x – 3y = 3000. Solving gives x = 4000. A’s income = 3x = ₹12000
Ans: (2) ₹12000
Explanation: Let incomes be 3x and 2x, expenses 5y and 3y. 3x – 5y = 3000 and 2x – 3y = 3000. Solving gives x = 4000. A’s income = 3x = ₹12000
Q.22. Complete the following series:
582, 581, 585, 576, 592, 567, ____
Ans: (3) 603
Explanation: Differences: 581 – 582 = -1 (i.e., -1^2); 585 – 581 = +4 (+2^2); 576 – 585 = -9 (-3^2); 592 – 576 = +16 (+4^2); 567 – 592 = -25 (-5^2). Next change is +36 (+6^2): 567 + 36 = 603
Ans: (3) 603
Explanation: Differences: 581 – 582 = -1 (i.e., -1^2); 585 – 581 = +4 (+2^2); 576 – 585 = -9 (-3^2); 592 – 576 = +16 (+4^2); 567 – 592 = -25 (-5^2). Next change is +36 (+6^2): 567 + 36 = 603
Q.23. Arrange the following fractions in descending order:
A. 9/11
B. 8/9
C. 4/7
D. 3/5
E. 8/15
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) B>A>D>C>E
Explanation: Converting to decimals: B = 0.888, A = 0.818, D = 0.6, C = 0.571, E = 0.533. Ordering in descending: B > A > D > C > E[cite: 85, 86].
Ans: (4) B>A>D>C>E
Explanation: Converting to decimals: B = 0.888, A = 0.818, D = 0.6, C = 0.571, E = 0.533. Ordering in descending: B > A > D > C > E[cite: 85, 86].
Q.24. Identify the correct mathematical statements:
A. A batsman makes a score of 87 runs in the 17th inning and thus increases his average by 3. Then his average after 17th inning is 36.
B. The value of a number subtracted from Numerator and Denominator of the fraction 6⁄7 to get a fraction equal to 3⁄4 is 3.
C. If 15% of 40 is greater than 25% of a number by 2, then the number is 16.
D. The value of (1 + 1⁄2) (1 + 1⁄3) (1 + 1⁄4) …….. (1 + 1⁄120) is 60.5
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) B, C and D Only
Explanation: Verifying statements B, C, and D yields true mathematical calculations[cite: 86, 87].
Ans: (1) B, C and D Only
Explanation: Verifying statements B, C, and D yields true mathematical calculations[cite: 86, 87].
Q.25. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Word) | LIST-II (Code) |
|---|---|
| A. CRAB | I. 32 |
| B. BARK | II. 49 |
| C. OVER | III. 24 |
| D. SING | IV. 60 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Explanation: Matching based on letter values/letter counts or positional code rules
Ans: (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Explanation: Matching based on letter values/letter counts or positional code rules
Q.26. “Sound is eternal, because it is caused” commits the fallacy (hetvābhāsa) of:
Ans: (4) Viruddha
Explanation: Viruddha (contradictory middle) is the fallacy where the middle term (hetu) disproves the major term instead of proving it. ‘Caused’ implies non-eternal, contradicting ‘eternal’
Ans: (4) Viruddha
Explanation: Viruddha (contradictory middle) is the fallacy where the middle term (hetu) disproves the major term instead of proving it. ‘Caused’ implies non-eternal, contradicting ‘eternal’
Q.27. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Source of Knowledge) | LIST-II (Accepted by) |
|---|---|
| A. Yogaja Pratyakşa | I. Vedāntins |
| B. Kevalajñāna | II. Cārvāka |
| C. Only Pratyakşa | III. Jaina |
| D. Aparokşānubhuti | IV. Nyaya |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Explanation: Yogaja Pratyakşa is accepted by Nyaya (IV), Kevalajñāna is Jainism (III), Only Pratyaksa is Cārvāka (II), Aparokşānubhuti is Vedānta (I)
Ans: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Explanation: Yogaja Pratyakşa is accepted by Nyaya (IV), Kevalajñāna is Jainism (III), Only Pratyaksa is Cārvāka (II), Aparokşānubhuti is Vedānta (I)
Q.28. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Validity can never apply to any single proposition by itself.
Reason R: Validity and invalidity are attribute of arguments.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Individual propositions are true or false, while arguments are valid or invalid. Thus validity applies only to arguments[cite: 90, 91].
Ans: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Individual propositions are true or false, while arguments are valid or invalid. Thus validity applies only to arguments[cite: 90, 91].
Q.29. Which of the following are TRUE:
A. For the Nyaya, knowledge of Abhāva is acquired through Anupalabdhi Pramāņa.
B. The Nyaya makes a distinction between Laukika and Alaukika Pratyakşa.
C. The Nyaya reduces Arthāpatti to Anumāna.
D. The Nyaya accepts the validity of Upamāna as a Pramāņa.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) B, C and D Only
Explanation: Nyaya distinguishes Laukika and Alaukika perception, reduces Arthāpatti to Anumāna, and accepts Upamāna. Abhāva knowledge in Nyaya is via ordinary perception/laukika, not Anupalabdhi (which is Mimamsa/Vedanta)[cite: 91, 92].
Ans: (3) B, C and D Only
Explanation: Nyaya distinguishes Laukika and Alaukika perception, reduces Arthāpatti to Anumāna, and accepts Upamāna. Abhāva knowledge in Nyaya is via ordinary perception/laukika, not Anupalabdhi (which is Mimamsa/Vedanta)[cite: 91, 92].
Q.30. Which of the following are TRUE:
A. For the Carvāka, pratyakşa is the only pramāņa.
B. For the Carvāka, śabda is the only pramāņa.
C. For the Carvāka, anumāna is not a pramāņa.
D. For the Jaina, Mati includes both perceptual and inferential knowledge.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) A, C and D Only
Explanation: Carvaka accepts only pratyakşa (A) and rejects anumāna (C). Jaina Mati includes perceptual and inferential knowledge (D)
Ans: (4) A, C and D Only
Explanation: Carvaka accepts only pratyakşa (A) and rejects anumāna (C). Jaina Mati includes perceptual and inferential knowledge (D)
Q.31. USB stands for_______
Ans: (2) Universal Serial Bus
Explanation: USB stands for Universal Serial Bus, an industry standard for cable connections
Ans: (2) Universal Serial Bus
Explanation: USB stands for Universal Serial Bus, an industry standard for cable connections
Q.32. Which of the following is NOT a programming language?
Ans: (4) Google
Explanation: Python, C, and Java are programming languages, whereas Google is a technology company/search engine
Ans: (4) Google
Explanation: Python, C, and Java are programming languages, whereas Google is a technology company/search engine
Q.33. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I | LIST-II |
|---|---|
| A. Keyboard | I. Memory |
| B. Monitor | II. Processor |
| C. CPU | III. Output device |
| D. ROM | IV. Input device |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Explanation: Keyboard is Input device (IV), Monitor is Output device (III), CPU is Processor (II), ROM is Memory (I)
Ans: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Explanation: Keyboard is Input device (IV), Monitor is Output device (III), CPU is Processor (II), ROM is Memory (I)
Q.34. Which of the following memories/storage are volatile?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Cache
D. SSD
E. HDD
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A and C Only
Explanation: RAM and Cache memory are volatile (lose data when power is turned off), whereas ROM, SSD, and HDD are non-volatile
Ans: (3) A and C Only
Explanation: RAM and Cache memory are volatile (lose data when power is turned off), whereas ROM, SSD, and HDD are non-volatile
Q.35. Arrange the following operating systems in correct chronological order of their development:
A. Linux
B. MS-DOS
C. MAC OS
D. Windows
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) B, C, A, D
Explanation: MS-DOS was released in 1981, Classic Mac OS in 1984, Windows in 1985, and Linux kernel in 1991
Ans: (2) B, C, A, D
Explanation: MS-DOS was released in 1981, Classic Mac OS in 1984, Windows in 1985, and Linux kernel in 1991
Q.36. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Eutrophication leads to depletion of dissolved oxygen in a lake.
Reason R: Dissolved oxygen in water decreases with increase in temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Both statements are scientifically true, but oxygen depletion in eutrophication is primarily caused by algal blooms and subsequent microbial decomposition, not directly because of water temperature increase
Ans: (2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Both statements are scientifically true, but oxygen depletion in eutrophication is primarily caused by algal blooms and subsequent microbial decomposition, not directly because of water temperature increase
Q.37. Arrange the following in ascending order of their moisture content.
A. Trash
B. Rubbish
C. Refuse
D. Garbage
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A, B, D, C
Explanation: Ascending moisture content order for solid waste components: Trash < Rubbish < Garbage < Refuse
Ans: (3) A, B, D, C
Explanation: Ascending moisture content order for solid waste components: Trash < Rubbish < Garbage < Refuse
Q.38. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Convention/Protocol) | LIST-II (Related With) |
|---|---|
| A. Montreal Protocol | I. Global Warming |
| B. Stockholm Convention | II. Transboundary movements of hazardous waste |
| C. Kyoto Protocol | III. Ozone layer depletion |
| D. Basel Convention | IV. Persistent organic pollutants |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Explanation: Montreal Protocol relates to Ozone layer depletion (III), Stockholm Convention relates to Persistent organic pollutants (IV), Kyoto Protocol relates to Global Warming (I), Basel Convention relates to Transboundary movements of hazardous waste (II)
Ans: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Explanation: Montreal Protocol relates to Ozone layer depletion (III), Stockholm Convention relates to Persistent organic pollutants (IV), Kyoto Protocol relates to Global Warming (I), Basel Convention relates to Transboundary movements of hazardous waste (II)
Q.39. Which of the following renewable energy resources contributes highest proportion to the total installed power capacity in India?
Ans: (1) Solar
Explanation: Solar power currently contributes the highest proportion among renewable energy sources to India’s total installed renewable capacity
Ans: (1) Solar
Explanation: Solar power currently contributes the highest proportion among renewable energy sources to India’s total installed renewable capacity
Q.40. The Black-foot disease is caused by the contamination of:
Ans: (1) Arsenic
Explanation: Chronic exposure to Arsenic in drinking water causes Black-foot disease, a severe blood vessel disorder
Ans: (1) Arsenic
Explanation: Chronic exposure to Arsenic in drinking water causes Black-foot disease, a severe blood vessel disorder
Q.41. Which education policy first recommended 6% of GDP as public expenditure on education in India?
Ans: (1) National Policy on Education, 1968
Explanation: The Kothari Commission (1964-66) recommendation was officially adopted first in the National Policy on Education (NPE), 1968
Ans: (1) National Policy on Education, 1968
Explanation: The Kothari Commission (1964-66) recommendation was officially adopted first in the National Policy on Education (NPE), 1968
Q.42. National Education Policy 2020 has entrusted ________ with the responsibility to setup the standards of content, technology and pedagogy for online/digital teaching-learning.
Ans: (1) National Educational Technology Forum
Explanation: NEP 2020 recommended the creation of an autonomous body, the National Educational Technology Forum (NETF), to provide a platform for the free exchange of ideas on the use of technology
Ans: (1) National Educational Technology Forum
Explanation: NEP 2020 recommended the creation of an autonomous body, the National Educational Technology Forum (NETF), to provide a platform for the free exchange of ideas on the use of technology
Q.43. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Higher Education Institutions in the country with appropriate credit transfer mechanism are facilitating students to enroll themselves in pre-designed academic programmes.
Reason R: Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) works on the principle of multiple entry-multiple exit as well as any-time, any-where, and any-level learning.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: The Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) facilitates credit accumulation and redemption, supporting multiple entry and exit and credit transfer mechanisms.
Ans: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: The Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) facilitates credit accumulation and redemption, supporting multiple entry and exit and credit transfer mechanisms.
Q.44. Arrange the following phrases in the vision of National Education Policy, 2020 in the correct sequence of their appearance:
A. A conscious awareness of one’s roles and responsibilities in a changing world
B. An education system rooted in Indian Ethos
C. Developing a deep sense of respect towards the fundamental duties and constitutional values
D. Transforming Bharat into an equitable and vibrant knowledge society
E. Instilling among learners a deep-rooted pride in being Indian
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) E, B, C, A, D
Explanation: Sequence follows the core vision statements outlined in the introductory framework of the National Education Policy 2020.
Ans: (3) E, B, C, A, D
Explanation: Sequence follows the core vision statements outlined in the introductory framework of the National Education Policy 2020.
Q.45. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Body under HECI) | LIST-II (Function) |
|---|---|
| A. NHERC | I. Accreditation of higher education Institutions |
| B. NAAC | II. Single point regulator for higher education sector |
| C. HEGC | III. Formulating a national higher education qualification framework |
| D. GEC | IV. Funding and financing of higher education |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Explanation: HECI verticals include NHERC for regulation, HEGC for financing, GEC for standard-setting, while accreditation is handled through independent national bodies.
Ans: (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Explanation: HECI verticals include NHERC for regulation, HEGC for financing, GEC for standard-setting, while accreditation is handled through independent national bodies.
Read the passage given below and answer the questions 46-50:
The use of the term dharma for law, nevertheless, was neither universal nor inevitable. This is borne out by the first century C.E. author Kautilya’s compendium Treatise on Politics (Arthasāstra). The significance of Kautilya’s work for the history of law in India rests primarily on the fact that it provides a different and in many respects unique lens into that history. His treatise belongs to a distinct scholarly tradition with social and political priorities different from those represented by the science of dharma (dharmaśāstra), the primary discipline devoted to jurisprudential reflection within the Brahmanical scholastic tradition. Kautilya makes no attempt to reduce the variety of laws within society into the single category of dharma. Indeed, we do not find a single comprehensive term within the Treatise on Politics to refer to law as such, or even to the broad areas of religious and secular norms covered by the term dharma within the discourse of the science of dharma. What is clear, however, is that Kautilya, both formally and in obiter dicta, argues for the plurality of law; law is not one but multiple. Although his text is later than the earliest documents of the science of dharma, it nevertheless taps into an alternate intellectual history that probably ran parallel to the one represented by the science of dharma.
Q.46. In simple terms, the first line of the given passage means:
Ans: (3) There was nothing unavoidable or globally acceptable about the use of the word ‘dharma’ for ‘law’, anyway.
Explanation: The passage opens by stating that using ‘dharma’ for law was neither universal nor inevitable, which aligns with option 3.
Ans: (3) There was nothing unavoidable or globally acceptable about the use of the word ‘dharma’ for ‘law’, anyway.
Explanation: The passage opens by stating that using ‘dharma’ for law was neither universal nor inevitable, which aligns with option 3.
Q.47. The work of Kautilya is of significance because:
Ans: (2) It works as an alternate view of the history of law in India.
Explanation: The passage notes that Kautilya’s work provides a unique lens and taps into an alternate intellectual history parallel to the science of dharma.
Ans: (2) It works as an alternate view of the history of law in India.
Explanation: The passage notes that Kautilya’s work provides a unique lens and taps into an alternate intellectual history parallel to the science of dharma.
Q.48. The word “comprehensive” in the passage can be replaced by the word:
Ans: (4) all-embracing
Explanation: ‘Comprehensive’ means complete, thorough, or all-embracing in scope.
Ans: (4) all-embracing
Explanation: ‘Comprehensive’ means complete, thorough, or all-embracing in scope.
Q.49. The passage tells the reader that Kautilya “makes no attempt to reduce the variety of laws within society to the single category of dharma”. This demonstrates his argument for the:
Ans: (1) Plurality
Explanation: The text explicitly notes that Kautilya argues for the plurality of law; law is not one but multiple.
Ans: (1) Plurality
Explanation: The text explicitly notes that Kautilya argues for the plurality of law; law is not one but multiple.
Q.50. Which of the following is concerned primarily with jurisprudential reflection according to Brahmanical scholastic tradition?
Ans: (3) Dharmaśāstra
Explanation: The passage notes that the science of dharma (dharmaśāstra) is the primary discipline devoted to jurisprudential reflection within the Brahmanical scholastic tradition.
Ans: (3) Dharmaśāstra
Explanation: The passage notes that the science of dharma (dharmaśāstra) is the primary discipline devoted to jurisprudential reflection within the Brahmanical scholastic tradition.
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
You cannot copy content of this page