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Study the following table and answer the questions:
The table shows the data of Demand (number of applications received) and Intake (available seats) in five colleges (A, B, C, D and E) :
| College | A | B | C | D | E |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Demand (application received) | 3000 | 600 | 2500 | 1200 | 3300 |
| Intake (available seats) | 1500 | 1800 | 1000 | 2700 | 2200 |
How much percent more is the average demand of all five colleges taking together than the average of available seats of all the five colleges?
Solution:
Step 1: Calculate total demand
Total Demand = 3000 + 600 + 2500 + 1200 + 3300 = 10,600
Average Demand = 10,600 ÷ 5 = 2,120
Step 2: Calculate total available seats
Total Intake = 1500 + 1800 + 1000 + 2700 + 2200 = 9,200
Average Intake = 9,200 ÷ 5 = 1,840
Step 3: Calculate percentage by which average demand is more than average intake
Percentage more = [(Average Demand − Average Intake) ÷ Average Intake] × 100
= [(2120 − 1840) ÷ 1840] × 100
= (280 ÷ 1840) × 100
= 15.22%
Correct Answer: (3) 15.22%
Solution:
Step 1: Calculate total demand
Total Demand = 3000 + 600 + 2500 + 1200 + 3300 = 10,600
Average Demand = 10,600 ÷ 5 = 2,120
Step 2: Calculate total available seats
Total Intake = 1500 + 1800 + 1000 + 2700 + 2200 = 9,200
Average Intake = 9,200 ÷ 5 = 1,840
Step 3: Calculate percentage by which average demand is more than average intake
Percentage more = [(Average Demand − Average Intake) ÷ Average Intake] × 100
= [(2120 − 1840) ÷ 1840] × 100
= (280 ÷ 1840) × 100
= 15.22%
Correct Answer: (3) 15.22%
Study the following table and answer the questions:
The table shows the data of Demand (number of applications received) and Intake (available seats) in five colleges (A, B, C, D and E) :
| College | A | B | C | D | E |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Demand (application received) | 3000 | 600 | 2500 | 1200 | 3300 |
| Intake (available seats) | 1500 | 1800 | 1000 | 2700 | 2200 |
What is the ratio of the number of colleges having more demand than available seats to those having more available seats than demand?
Solution:
Compare Demand and Intake for each college:
Colleges having more demand than available seats = 3 (A, C, E)
Colleges having more available seats than demand = 2 (B, D)
Therefore, the required ratio is:
3 : 2
Correct Answer: (4) 3 : 2
Solution:
Compare Demand and Intake for each college:
Colleges having more demand than available seats = 3 (A, C, E)
Colleges having more available seats than demand = 2 (B, D)
Therefore, the required ratio is:
3 : 2
Correct Answer: (4) 3 : 2
Study the following table and answer the questions:
The table shows the data of Demand (number of applications received) and Intake (available seats) in five colleges (A, B, C, D and E) :
| College | A | B | C | D | E |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Demand (application received) | 3000 | 600 | 2500 | 1200 | 3300 |
| Intake (available seats) | 1500 | 1800 | 1000 | 2700 | 2200 |
The demand for college B is approximately what percent of the demand for college C?
Solution:
Demand for College B = 600
Demand for College C = 2500
Percentage of demand for B compared to C:
= (600 ÷ 2500) × 100
= 24%
Correct Answer: (1) 24%
Solution:
Demand for College B = 600
Demand for College C = 2500
Percentage of demand for B compared to C:
= (600 ÷ 2500) × 100
= 24%
Correct Answer: (1) 24%
Study the following table and answer the questions:
The table shows the data of Demand (number of applications received) and Intake (available seats) in five colleges (A, B, C, D and E) :
| College | A | B | C | D | E |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Demand (application received) | 3000 | 600 | 2500 | 1200 | 3300 |
| Intake (available seats) | 1500 | 1800 | 1000 | 2700 | 2200 |
The total demand of two highest demanded colleges is what percent higher than total demand of two lowest demanded colleges?
Solution:
Step 1: Identify the two highest demanded colleges
College E = 3300 applications
College A = 3000 applications
Total demand of two highest demanded colleges:
= 3300 + 3000 = 6300
Step 2: Identify the two lowest demanded colleges
College B = 600 applications
College D = 1200 applications
Total demand of two lowest demanded colleges:
= 600 + 1200 = 1800
Step 3: Calculate the percentage higher
Percentage higher = [(6300 − 1800) ÷ 1800] × 100
= (4500 ÷ 1800) × 100
= 250%
Correct Answer: (2) 250%
Solution:
Step 1: Identify the two highest demanded colleges
College E = 3300 applications
College A = 3000 applications
Total demand of two highest demanded colleges:
= 3300 + 3000 = 6300
Step 2: Identify the two lowest demanded colleges
College B = 600 applications
College D = 1200 applications
Total demand of two lowest demanded colleges:
= 600 + 1200 = 1800
Step 3: Calculate the percentage higher
Percentage higher = [(6300 − 1800) ÷ 1800] × 100
= (4500 ÷ 1800) × 100
= 250%
Correct Answer: (2) 250%
Study the following table and answer the questions:
The table shows the data of Demand (number of applications received) and Intake (available seats) in five colleges (A, B, C, D and E) :
| College | A | B | C | D | E |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Demand (application received) | 3000 | 600 | 2500 | 1200 | 3300 |
| Intake (available seats) | 1500 | 1800 | 1000 | 2700 | 2200 |
The difference of demand and available seats in college E is what percentage lower than the difference of demand and available seats of college A?
Solution:
Step 1: Find the difference for College E
Demand of E = 3300
Available seats of E = 2200
Difference = 3300 − 2200 = 1100
Step 2: Find the difference for College A
Demand of A = 3000
Available seats of A = 1500
Difference = 3000 − 1500 = 1500
Step 3: Calculate the percentage lower
Percentage lower = [(1500 − 1100) ÷ 1500] × 100
= (400 ÷ 1500) × 100
= 26.67%
Correct Answer: (3) 26.67%
Solution:
Step 1: Find the difference for College E
Demand of E = 3300
Available seats of E = 2200
Difference = 3300 − 2200 = 1100
Step 2: Find the difference for College A
Demand of A = 3000
Available seats of A = 1500
Difference = 3000 − 1500 = 1500
Step 3: Calculate the percentage lower
Percentage lower = [(1500 − 1100) ÷ 1500] × 100
= (400 ÷ 1500) × 100
= 26.67%
Correct Answer: (3) 26.67%
A teacher assesses the answer books of the students and based on their scores he gives them ranks. Which scales of measurement are used by him?
Solution:
The teacher first assigns scores to the students and then gives them ranks based on those scores.
Scores are measured on an interval scale, while ranks are measured on an ordinal scale because they indicate the relative order of students.
Therefore, the scales of measurement used are Interval and Ordinal.
Correct Answer: (1) Interval and ordinal
Solution:
The teacher first assigns scores to the students and then gives them ranks based on those scores.
Scores are measured on an interval scale, while ranks are measured on an ordinal scale because they indicate the relative order of students.
Therefore, the scales of measurement used are Interval and Ordinal.
Correct Answer: (1) Interval and ordinal
The following are the steps related with construction and standardisation of research tool. Select their correct order from earlier to later:
A. Construction of items
B. Selection of items for final draft of the tool
C. Item analysis
D. Establishment of norms
E. Selection of items for primary draft of the tool
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
The correct sequence for construction and standardisation of a research tool is:
Thus, the correct order is A → E → C → B → D.
Correct Answer: (1) A, E, C, B, D
Solution:
The correct sequence for construction and standardisation of a research tool is:
Thus, the correct order is A → E → C → B → D.
Correct Answer: (1) A, E, C, B, D
Which of the following are the characteristics of Action Research?
A. It does not aim to develop theory.
B. It is not conducted to generalise the findings.
C. Sample is selected randomly.
D. It is conducted to find the solution of local level problem.
E. Control on variable is required in it.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
Action Research is a practical form of research conducted to solve an immediate or local problem and improve practice. Its major characteristics are:
Therefore, the correct characteristics are A, B and D.
Correct Answer: (4) A, B and D Only
Solution:
Action Research is a practical form of research conducted to solve an immediate or local problem and improve practice. Its major characteristics are:
Therefore, the correct characteristics are A, B and D.
Correct Answer: (4) A, B and D Only
Identify non-parametric tests:
A. Kendall’s W Test
B. Rank correlation test
C. Wilcoxon Test
D. t Test
E. Analysis of Variance
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Solution:
Non-parametric tests do not require the data to follow a specific population distribution and commonly use ranks.
Therefore, the non-parametric tests are A, B and C.
Correct Answer: (4) A, B and C Only
Solution:
Non-parametric tests do not require the data to follow a specific population distribution and commonly use ranks.
Therefore, the non-parametric tests are A, B and C.
Correct Answer: (4) A, B and C Only
Match List – I with List – II :
| List – I | List – II |
|---|---|
| A. Experimental Research | I. In depth study of a single unit |
| B. Ethnographic Research | II. Study of opinions of people towards social media |
| C. Survey | III. Cause and effect relationship between independent and dependent variables |
| D. Case study | IV. Study of the perception of the people of a particular group regarding their life |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Match each research type with its appropriate description:
| List-I | List-II | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Experimental Research | III | Studies cause-and-effect relationships between independent and dependent variables. |
| B. Ethnographic Research | IV | Studies the perceptions and experiences of people belonging to a particular group in their natural social context. |
| C. Survey | II | Used to study the opinions or attitudes of people, such as their opinions towards social media. |
| D. Case Study | I | Involves an in-depth study of a single unit, case, individual, institution, or group. |
Thus, the correct matching is:
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Solution:
Match each research type with its appropriate description:
| List-I | List-II | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Experimental Research | III | Studies cause-and-effect relationships between independent and dependent variables. |
| B. Ethnographic Research | IV | Studies the perceptions and experiences of people belonging to a particular group in their natural social context. |
| C. Survey | II | Used to study the opinions or attitudes of people, such as their opinions towards social media. |
| D. Case Study | I | Involves an in-depth study of a single unit, case, individual, institution, or group. |
Thus, the correct matching is:
A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Choose the correct statement related to Autonomous colleges in the context of recommendations of NPE 1986 (POA-1992):
Solution:
The National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986, along with the Programme of Action (POA) 1992, emphasized the development of autonomous colleges to improve academic flexibility and quality in higher education.
Correct Answer: (4) 500 colleges to be developed as autonomous colleges in the seventh five year plan
Solution:
The National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986, along with the Programme of Action (POA) 1992, emphasized the development of autonomous colleges to improve academic flexibility and quality in higher education.
Correct Answer: (4) 500 colleges to be developed as autonomous colleges in the seventh five year plan
The global education development agenda reflected in the Goal 4 (SDG4) of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development was adopted by India in_______
Solution:
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including Goal 4 (SDG 4) on quality education, were adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
India, as a UN Member State, adopted the 2030 Agenda and its 17 SDGs in 2015.
Correct Answer: (4) 2015
Solution:
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), including Goal 4 (SDG 4) on quality education, were adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015 as part of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.
India, as a UN Member State, adopted the 2030 Agenda and its 17 SDGs in 2015.
Correct Answer: (4) 2015
Arrange the given digital initiatives of Govt. of India in chronological order as per their year of launch:
A. e-gyankosh
B. PM e-Vidya
C. NPTEL
D. e-PG Pathshala
E. SWAYAM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
The digital initiatives can be arranged according to their year of launch as follows:
| Initiative | Year of Launch |
|---|---|
| NPTEL (C) | 2003 |
| e-Gyankosh (A) | 2005 |
| e-PG Pathshala (D) | 2011 |
| SWAYAM (E) | 2017 |
| PM e-Vidya (B) | 2020 |
Therefore, the correct chronological order is:
C → A → D → E → B
Correct Answer: (1) C, A, D, E, B
Solution:
The digital initiatives can be arranged according to their year of launch as follows:
| Initiative | Year of Launch |
|---|---|
| NPTEL (C) | 2003 |
| e-Gyankosh (A) | 2005 |
| e-PG Pathshala (D) | 2011 |
| SWAYAM (E) | 2017 |
| PM e-Vidya (B) | 2020 |
Therefore, the correct chronological order is:
C → A → D → E → B
Correct Answer: (1) C, A, D, E, B
The NEP, 2020 document states that:
A. Single stream HEI’s will be phased out over time
B. By 2035, there shall be at least one multidisciplinary HEI in or near every district
C. Institutions will have option to run ODL and online programmes, provided they are accredited to do so
D. Justice J. S. Verma Commission (2012) reports that over 20000 stand alone Teacher Educaton Institutions (TEIs) are selling degrees for a price
E. Private HEIs will be encouraged to offer large number of freeships and scholarships to their students
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
Therefore, the correct statements are A, C and E.
Correct Answer: (3) A, C and E Only
Solution:
Therefore, the correct statements are A, C and E.
Correct Answer: (3) A, C and E Only
Match List – I with List – II :
| List – I (Committee) | List – II (Major Focus Area/Recommendation in the context of Education) |
|---|---|
| A. Sarkar Committee 1945 | I. To explore Public-Private Partnership in Higher Education |
| B. Sam Pitroda Committee | II. To recommend measures for improving governance and accountability in Higher Education Institutions |
| C. K. B. Pawar Committee | III. Development of Higher Technical Education in India |
| D. Sahoo Committee | IV. Restructuring Curricula for multidisciplinary professional courses |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
The committees can be matched with their major focus areas as follows:
| List-I (Committee) | List-II (Focus Area/Recommendation) | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Sarkar Committee (1945) | III. Development of Higher Technical Education in India | The committee examined the development of higher technical education and recommended establishing higher technical institutions. |
| B. Sam Pitroda Committee | IV. Restructuring Curricula for multidisciplinary professional courses | It is associated with recommendations for restructuring professional education with a multidisciplinary approach. |
| C. K. B. Pawar Committee | I. To explore Public-Private Partnership in Higher Education | The committee explored the possibility of PPP in higher education. |
| D. Sahoo Committee | II. To recommend measures for improving governance and accountability in Higher Education Institutions | Its focus was on improving governance and accountability in higher education institutions. |
Thus, the correct matching is:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Solution:
The committees can be matched with their major focus areas as follows:
| List-I (Committee) | List-II (Focus Area/Recommendation) | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Sarkar Committee (1945) | III. Development of Higher Technical Education in India | The committee examined the development of higher technical education and recommended establishing higher technical institutions. |
| B. Sam Pitroda Committee | IV. Restructuring Curricula for multidisciplinary professional courses | It is associated with recommendations for restructuring professional education with a multidisciplinary approach. |
| C. K. B. Pawar Committee | I. To explore Public-Private Partnership in Higher Education | The committee explored the possibility of PPP in higher education. |
| D. Sahoo Committee | II. To recommend measures for improving governance and accountability in Higher Education Institutions | Its focus was on improving governance and accountability in higher education institutions. |
Thus, the correct matching is:
A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Which one of the following does not pertain to 4 Cs of successful writing?
Solution:
The 4 Cs of successful writing are generally:
Connect is not one of the 4 Cs of successful writing.
Correct Answer: (2) Connect
Solution:
The 4 Cs of successful writing are generally:
Connect is not one of the 4 Cs of successful writing.
Correct Answer: (2) Connect
Skills to face job interviews and getting employed are part of :
(1) teaching skills
(2) soft skills
(3) learning skills
(4) manipulation skills
Solution:
Skills required to face job interviews and improve employability include communication, interpersonal skills, confidence, teamwork, adaptability, and professional behaviour. These are collectively considered soft skills.
Therefore, skills for facing job interviews and getting employed are part of soft skills.
Correct Answer: (2) Soft skills
Solution:
Skills required to face job interviews and improve employability include communication, interpersonal skills, confidence, teamwork, adaptability, and professional behaviour. These are collectively considered soft skills.
Therefore, skills for facing job interviews and getting employed are part of soft skills.
Correct Answer: (2) Soft skills
Arrange the evolution of the following social media platforms in chronological order from past to present:
A. Tik Tok
B. Twitter
C. FaceBook
D. Instagram
E. YouTube
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
The social media platforms can be arranged according to their launch years:
| Platform | Launch Year |
|---|---|
| Facebook (C) | 2004 |
| YouTube (E) | 2005 |
| Twitter (B) | 2006 |
| Instagram (D) | 2010 |
| TikTok (A) | 2016 |
Therefore, the correct chronological order from past to present is:
C → E → B → D → A
Answer: (4) C, E, B, D, A
Solution:
The social media platforms can be arranged according to their launch years:
| Platform | Launch Year |
|---|---|
| Facebook (C) | 2004 |
| YouTube (E) | 2005 |
| Twitter (B) | 2006 |
| Instagram (D) | 2010 |
| TikTok (A) | 2016 |
Therefore, the correct chronological order from past to present is:
C → E → B → D → A
Answer: (4) C, E, B, D, A
Which of the following come under the category of non-verbal communication?
A. Body language
B. Shouting
C. Gestures
D. Facial Expressions
E. Conversation on telephonic call
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Non-verbal communication conveys messages without using spoken words. It includes physical movements, gestures, body language, and facial expressions.
Therefore, the correct set is A, C and D Only.
Correct Answer: (4) A, C and D Only
Solution:
Non-verbal communication conveys messages without using spoken words. It includes physical movements, gestures, body language, and facial expressions.
Therefore, the correct set is A, C and D Only.
Correct Answer: (4) A, C and D Only
Match List – I with List – II :
| List – I | List – II |
|---|---|
| A. Swayam Prabha | I. Kids Programme |
| B. Shark Tank | II. Agriculture Programme |
| C. Krishi Darshan | III. Business reality T.V. Series |
| D. Shaktimaan | IV. Educational Programmes |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
Match the programmes with their respective categories:
| List-I | List-II | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Swayam Prabha | IV. Educational Programmes | Swayam Prabha provides educational content through a group of DTH channels. |
| B. Shark Tank | III. Business reality TV Series | Shark Tank is a business reality television series featuring entrepreneurs presenting their ideas to investors. |
| C. Krishi Darshan | II. Agriculture Programme | Krishi Darshan is an agricultural programme focused on farming and related information. |
| D. Shaktimaan | I. Kids Programme | Shaktimaan is a popular Indian television programme that became particularly popular among children. |
Thus, the correct matching is:
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Solution:
Match the programmes with their respective categories:
| List-I | List-II | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Swayam Prabha | IV. Educational Programmes | Swayam Prabha provides educational content through a group of DTH channels. |
| B. Shark Tank | III. Business reality TV Series | Shark Tank is a business reality television series featuring entrepreneurs presenting their ideas to investors. |
| C. Krishi Darshan | II. Agriculture Programme | Krishi Darshan is an agricultural programme focused on farming and related information. |
| D. Shaktimaan | I. Kids Programme | Shaktimaan is a popular Indian television programme that became particularly popular among children. |
Thus, the correct matching is:
A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Find the missing term (?) in the following alpha-numeric series.
A2B, B3D, C5F, (?), E11J, ……
Solution:
Observe the pattern in the alpha-numeric series:
A2B, B3D, C5F, (?), E11J
Therefore, the missing term is:
D7H
Correct Answer: (1) D7H
Solution:
Observe the pattern in the alpha-numeric series:
A2B, B3D, C5F, (?), E11J
Therefore, the missing term is:
D7H
Correct Answer: (1) D7H
Find the next term (?) in the following number series.
0, 9, 26, 65, 124, 217, ?,
Solution:
Observe the series:
0, 9, 26, 65, 124, 217, ?
Each term follows the pattern:
n³ + (−1)n × n
Checking the terms:
Therefore, the next term for n = 7 is:
7³ − 1 = 343 − 1 = 342
Correct Answer: (4) 342
Solution:
Observe the series:
0, 9, 26, 65, 124, 217, ?
Each term follows the pattern:
n³ + (−1)n × n
Checking the terms:
Therefore, the next term for n = 7 is:
7³ − 1 = 343 − 1 = 342
Correct Answer: (4) 342
Arrange the following shapes in increasing order of their areas:
A. A circle of diameter 10 cm
B. A rectangle of dimensions [6 cm × 4 cm]
C. A square of side 5 cm
D. An equilateral triangle of side 5 cm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
Calculate the area of each shape:
Therefore, the increasing order of areas is:
D (10.83) < B (24) < C (25) < A (78.54)
Correct Answer: (4) D, B, C, A
Solution:
Calculate the area of each shape:
Therefore, the increasing order of areas is:
D (10.83) < B (24) < C (25) < A (78.54)
Correct Answer: (4) D, B, C, A
Which of the following are correct?
A. Speed of 50 km/hour is equivalent to 15 m/s
B. The area of a rhombus with diagonals of 4 cm and 6 cm is 12 cm²
C. ∛(√729) is greater than 4
D. The cost price of 10 bananas is the same as the selling price of 8 bananas. The percentage profit is 25%
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Solution:
Thus, the correct statements are B and D only.
Correct Answer: (3) B and D Only
Solution:
Thus, the correct statements are B and D only.
Correct Answer: (3) B and D Only
Match List – I with List – II :
| List – I | List – II |
|---|---|
| A. In a class, the ratio of number of male students to number of female students is 9: 11. The percentage (%) of female students in the class is | I. 4 |
| B. When a number ‘x’ is added to the numerator and denominator of fraction 7/11 , it becomes 2/3 , then x is ______ | II. 7.5 |
| C. Two numbers are directly proportional to each other. If the value of one of the number is doubled, then their product will become times | III. 55 |
| D. If x / y = 3/2, then xy + yx / (x2 – y2) is equal to: | IV. 1 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
| Statement | Calculation | Match |
|---|---|---|
| A. Ratio of male students to female students is 9:11. | Total parts = 9 + 11 = 20. Percentage of female students = (11/20) × 100 = 55%. | III. 55 |
| B. Adding x to the numerator and denominator of 7/11 makes it 2/3. | (7 + x)/(11 + x) = 2/3 3(7 + x) = 2(11 + x) 21 + 3x = 22 + 2x x = 1. | IV. 1 |
| C. Two numbers are directly proportional. If one number is doubled, their product becomes how many times? | If the two numbers are x and y, doubling one number doubles the other because they are directly proportional. New product = (2x)(2y) = 4xy. Therefore, the product becomes 4 times. | I. 4 |
| D. If x:y = 3:2, find (xy + y²)/(x² − y²). | Let x = 3k and y = 2k. (xy + y²)/(x² − y²) = [(3k)(2k) + (2k)²] / [(3k)² − (2k)²] = (6k² + 4k²)/(9k² − 4k²) = 10k²/5k² = 2. | II. 2 |
Thus, the correct matching is:
A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Solution:
| Statement | Calculation | Match |
|---|---|---|
| A. Ratio of male students to female students is 9:11. | Total parts = 9 + 11 = 20. Percentage of female students = (11/20) × 100 = 55%. | III. 55 |
| B. Adding x to the numerator and denominator of 7/11 makes it 2/3. | (7 + x)/(11 + x) = 2/3 3(7 + x) = 2(11 + x) 21 + 3x = 22 + 2x x = 1. | IV. 1 |
| C. Two numbers are directly proportional. If one number is doubled, their product becomes how many times? | If the two numbers are x and y, doubling one number doubles the other because they are directly proportional. New product = (2x)(2y) = 4xy. Therefore, the product becomes 4 times. | I. 4 |
| D. If x:y = 3:2, find (xy + y²)/(x² − y²). | Let x = 3k and y = 2k. (xy + y²)/(x² − y²) = [(3k)(2k) + (2k)²] / [(3k)² − (2k)²] = (6k² + 4k²)/(9k² − 4k²) = 10k²/5k² = 2. | II. 2 |
Thus, the correct matching is:
A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Mimamsa is:
(1) State of mental absorption in an object (Samadhi)
(2) One of the classical schools of Indian Philosophy (Aastik Vedas)
(3) The unorthodox means of knowledge (Nastik)
(4) A doctrine that claims all universal things are momentary
Solution:
Mimamsa is one of the six orthodox (Astika) schools of Indian philosophy. It accepts the authority of the Vedas and primarily deals with Vedic rituals, dharma, and the interpretation of Vedic texts.
Correct Answer: (2) One of the classical schools of Indian Philosophy (Astika)
Solution:
Mimamsa is one of the six orthodox (Astika) schools of Indian philosophy. It accepts the authority of the Vedas and primarily deals with Vedic rituals, dharma, and the interpretation of Vedic texts.
Correct Answer: (2) One of the classical schools of Indian Philosophy (Astika)
Which of the following is an example of deductive reasoning?
Correct Answer: (3) If it is raining, then the ground is wet. It is raining. Therefore, the ground is wet.
Solution:
Deductive reasoning moves from a general rule or premise to a specific conclusion. If the premises are true and the argument is logically valid, the conclusion necessarily follows.
In option (3):
This is a classic example of Modus Ponens:
If P → Q
P is true
Therefore, Q is true.
Hence, the argument in option (3) is deductive reasoning.
Why the other options are not deductive:
Therefore, the correct answer is (3).
Correct Answer: (3) If it is raining, then the ground is wet. It is raining. Therefore, the ground is wet.
Solution:
Deductive reasoning moves from a general rule or premise to a specific conclusion. If the premises are true and the argument is logically valid, the conclusion necessarily follows.
In option (3):
This is a classic example of Modus Ponens:
If P → Q
P is true
Therefore, Q is true.
Hence, the argument in option (3) is deductive reasoning.
Why the other options are not deductive:
Therefore, the correct answer is (3).
Arrange in sequence the process of evaluating analogical reasoning:
A. Draw Conclusion
B. Evaluate strength of analogy
C. Assess relevance of similarities.
D. Detect common features
E. Identify the source and target domains
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (4) E, D, C, A, B
Solution:
The process of evaluating analogical reasoning proceeds logically from identifying what is being compared to assessing the quality of the analogy:
E. Identify the source and target domains – First, determine the two domains or situations being compared.
D. Detect common features – Identify the similarities or common features between the source and target.
C. Assess relevance of similarities – Determine whether those similarities are relevant to the conclusion being drawn.
A. Draw Conclusion – Based on the relevant similarities, formulate the conclusion.
B. Evaluate strength of analogy – Finally, assess how strong or convincing the analogy is.
Sequence: E → D → C → A → B
Correct Answer: (4) E, D, C, A, B
Correct Answer: (4) E, D, C, A, B
Solution:
The process of evaluating analogical reasoning proceeds logically from identifying what is being compared to assessing the quality of the analogy:
E. Identify the source and target domains – First, determine the two domains or situations being compared.
D. Detect common features – Identify the similarities or common features between the source and target.
C. Assess relevance of similarities – Determine whether those similarities are relevant to the conclusion being drawn.
A. Draw Conclusion – Based on the relevant similarities, formulate the conclusion.
B. Evaluate strength of analogy – Finally, assess how strong or convincing the analogy is.
Sequence: E → D → C → A → B
Correct Answer: (4) E, D, C, A, B
If the proposition ‘No reptiles are squirrels’ is given as false, then which of the following propositions can be inferred to be true?
A. Some reptiles are squirrels
B. All reptiles are squirrels
C. Some non-squirrels are not non-reptiles
D. Some reptiles are not squirrels
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
The proposition “No reptiles are squirrels” is a
Universal Negative (E) proposition.
Symbolically:
No R are S
means
R ∩ S = ∅.
If this proposition is given as false, its
contradictory proposition must be true:
Some reptiles are squirrels.
Therefore, Statement A follows directly.
On strict logical analysis, only A is necessarily
true. However, none of the given options contains “A Only”.
The available choices are:
Hence, the question does not provide a logically complete answer option.
The question was subsequently dropped by NTA, so it
should not be treated as having a valid final answer among the four
options.
Conclusion:
The question is best marked as
“Dropped by NTA – No valid option”.
The proposition “No reptiles are squirrels” is a
Universal Negative (E) proposition.
Symbolically:
No R are S
means
R ∩ S = ∅.
If this proposition is given as false, its
contradictory proposition must be true:
Some reptiles are squirrels.
Therefore, Statement A follows directly.
On strict logical analysis, only A is necessarily
true. However, none of the given options contains “A Only”.
The available choices are:
Hence, the question does not provide a logically complete answer option.
The question was subsequently dropped by NTA, so it
should not be treated as having a valid final answer among the four
options.
Conclusion:
The question is best marked as
“Dropped by NTA – No valid option”.
Drop.
Match List – I with List – II :
| List – I (Proposition) | List – II (Standard Form) |
|---|---|
| A. Universal affirmative | I. No S is P |
| B. Universal negative | II. All S is P |
| C. Particular affirmative | III. Some S is not P |
| D. Particular negative | IV. Some S is P |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Solution:
In traditional categorical logic, the four standard forms are:
| List-I: Proposition | Standard Form | List-II |
|---|---|---|
| A. Universal affirmative | All S is P | II |
| B. Universal negative | No S is P | I |
| C. Particular affirmative | Some S is P | IV |
| D. Particular negative | Some S is not P | III |
Therefore:
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Correct Answer: (2)
Quick memory trick:
This is the standard A–E–I–O classification of categorical propositions.
Solution:
In traditional categorical logic, the four standard forms are:
| List-I: Proposition | Standard Form | List-II |
|---|---|---|
| A. Universal affirmative | All S is P | II |
| B. Universal negative | No S is P | I |
| C. Particular affirmative | Some S is P | IV |
| D. Particular negative | Some S is not P | III |
Therefore:
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Correct Answer: (2)
Quick memory trick:
This is the standard A–E–I–O classification of categorical propositions.
‘Evening Hours of a Hermit’ is written by:
Correct Answer: (4) Pestalozzi
Solution:
The Evening Hours of a Hermit was written by
Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi, the famous Swiss
educational reformer and pedagogue.
The work was published in 1780 and contains
aphorisms and reflections on education, human nature, morality,
and social development.
Pestalozzi’s educational philosophy emphasized the development of
the whole person and the importance of moral, intellectual, and
practical education.
Therefore, the correct answer is (4) Pestalozzi.
Correct Answer: (4) Pestalozzi
Solution:
The Evening Hours of a Hermit was written by
Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi, the famous Swiss
educational reformer and pedagogue.
The work was published in 1780 and contains
aphorisms and reflections on education, human nature, morality,
and social development.
Pestalozzi’s educational philosophy emphasized the development of
the whole person and the importance of moral, intellectual, and
practical education.
Therefore, the correct answer is (4) Pestalozzi.
“Learning to Do-Towards a learning and working society” is a title of the report submitted by:
Solution:
“Learning to Do – Towards a Learning and Working Society” is the title associated with the report of the Adiseshaiah Committee.
The committee emphasized linking education with productive work, vocational skills, and employment, with the broader objective of developing a learning and working society.
Therefore:
Correct Answer: (1) Adiseshaiah Committee
Solution:
“Learning to Do – Towards a Learning and Working Society” is the title associated with the report of the Adiseshaiah Committee.
The committee emphasized linking education with productive work, vocational skills, and employment, with the broader objective of developing a learning and working society.
Therefore:
Correct Answer: (1) Adiseshaiah Committee
Arrange the following Erickson’s stages of development on the basis of order of their occurrence:
A. Generativity and Stagnation
B. Identity and Role Confusion
C. Autonomy and Shame
D. Industry and Inferiority
E. Integrity and Despair
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (4) C, D, B, A, E
Solution:
According to Erik Erikson’s Psychosocial Development Theory,
the given stages occur in the following order:
Therefore, the correct chronological sequence is:
C → D → B → A → E
Hence, the correct answer is (4).
| Stage | Psychosocial Conflict |
|---|---|
| 2 | Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt |
| 4 | Industry vs. Inferiority |
| 5 | Identity vs. Role Confusion |
| 7 | Generativity vs. Stagnation |
| 8 | Integrity vs. Despair |
Correct Answer: (4) C, D, B, A, E
Solution:
According to Erik Erikson’s Psychosocial Development Theory,
the given stages occur in the following order:
Therefore, the correct chronological sequence is:
C → D → B → A → E
Hence, the correct answer is (4).
| Stage | Psychosocial Conflict |
|---|---|
| 2 | Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt |
| 4 | Industry vs. Inferiority |
| 5 | Identity vs. Role Confusion |
| 7 | Generativity vs. Stagnation |
| 8 | Integrity vs. Despair |
Select the ‘RIGHT’ statements:
A. ‘Article 21-A’ inserted in constitution, is related to Right to free and compulsory education
B. ‘Article 30’ of the constitution protects the Right to Information
C. ‘Article 350-A’ assures the Higher Education and Research
D. ‘Article 30’ of the constitution protects the Right of minorities to manage the Educational institutions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (3) A and D Only
Solution:
Let us examine each statement:
Therefore, the correct statements are:
A and D only.
Hence, the correct answer is (3).
| Article | Provision |
|---|---|
| Article 21-A | Free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years |
| Article 30 | Minorities’ right to establish and administer educational institutions |
| Article 350-A | Instruction in mother tongue at the primary stage for linguistic minorities |
Correct Answer: (3) A and D Only
Solution:
Let us examine each statement:
Therefore, the correct statements are:
A and D only.
Hence, the correct answer is (3).
| Article | Provision |
|---|---|
| Article 21-A | Free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years |
| Article 30 | Minorities’ right to establish and administer educational institutions |
| Article 350-A | Instruction in mother tongue at the primary stage for linguistic minorities |
Match List – I with List – II :
| List – I (Methods) | List – II (Objectives) |
|---|---|
| A. Lecturing | I. Providing direct experiences |
| B. Demonstration | II. Presenting facts |
| C. Field trip | III. Providing purposeful activities |
| D. Project | IV. Showing manipulations of operations |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Solution:
The teaching methods can be matched with their primary objectives as follows:
| List-I: Method | List-II: Objective | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Lecturing | II. Presenting facts | The lecture method is primarily used to communicate information, concepts, facts, and theoretical knowledge to learners. |
| B. Demonstration | IV. Showing manipulations of operations | Demonstration involves showing learners how a process, procedure, operation, or skill is performed. |
| C. Field trip | I. Providing direct experiences | A field trip allows students to observe and learn from real-world situations, thereby providing direct experiences. |
| D. Project | III. Providing purposeful activities | Project-based learning engages students in purposeful activities involving investigation, planning, problem-solving, and completion of a meaningful task. |
Therefore, the correct matching is:
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.
Hence, the correct answer is (2).
Correct Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Solution:
The teaching methods can be matched with their primary objectives as follows:
| List-I: Method | List-II: Objective | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Lecturing | II. Presenting facts | The lecture method is primarily used to communicate information, concepts, facts, and theoretical knowledge to learners. |
| B. Demonstration | IV. Showing manipulations of operations | Demonstration involves showing learners how a process, procedure, operation, or skill is performed. |
| C. Field trip | I. Providing direct experiences | A field trip allows students to observe and learn from real-world situations, thereby providing direct experiences. |
| D. Project | III. Providing purposeful activities | Project-based learning engages students in purposeful activities involving investigation, planning, problem-solving, and completion of a meaningful task. |
Therefore, the correct matching is:
A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.
Hence, the correct answer is (2).
Landes (1969) considers the industrial revolution as the outcome of a combination of three interrelated streams of technical advances. Which of the following is NOT one of these streams ?
Correct Answer: (3) Modification of equipment to make human life easy
Solution:
According to David S. Landes (1969), in his analysis of
the Industrial Revolution, the transformation resulted from three
interrelated streams of technological advances:
Therefore, “modification of equipment to make human life easy”
is not one of the three streams identified by Landes.
Hence, the correct answer is (3).
| Technological Stream | Included by Landes? |
|---|---|
| Mechanization | ✓ Yes |
| Adoption of new power sources | ✓ Yes |
| Modification of equipment to make human life easy | ✗ No |
| Extensive use of new raw materials | ✓ Yes |
Correct Answer: (3) Modification of equipment to make human life easy
Solution:
According to David S. Landes (1969), in his analysis of
the Industrial Revolution, the transformation resulted from three
interrelated streams of technological advances:
Therefore, “modification of equipment to make human life easy”
is not one of the three streams identified by Landes.
Hence, the correct answer is (3).
| Technological Stream | Included by Landes? |
|---|---|
| Mechanization | ✓ Yes |
| Adoption of new power sources | ✓ Yes |
| Modification of equipment to make human life easy | ✗ No |
| Extensive use of new raw materials | ✓ Yes |
The process of typing CAPTCHAs is a variation on :
Correct Answer: (1) Turing Test
Solution:
CAPTCHA stands for
“Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart.”
It is a test designed to distinguish between a
human user and an automated computer program (bot).
The underlying idea is related to the
Turing Test, proposed by British mathematician and
computer scientist Alan Turing.
In a CAPTCHA, the user is asked to perform a task that is generally
intended to be easier for humans than for automated systems, such as
identifying distorted characters or selecting specified images.
Therefore, the process of typing CAPTCHAs is a variation on the
Turing Test.
Hence, the correct answer is (1) Turing Test.
Correct Answer: (1) Turing Test
Solution:
CAPTCHA stands for
“Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart.”
It is a test designed to distinguish between a
human user and an automated computer program (bot).
The underlying idea is related to the
Turing Test, proposed by British mathematician and
computer scientist Alan Turing.
In a CAPTCHA, the user is asked to perform a task that is generally
intended to be easier for humans than for automated systems, such as
identifying distorted characters or selecting specified images.
Therefore, the process of typing CAPTCHAs is a variation on the
Turing Test.
Hence, the correct answer is (1) Turing Test.
Choose the ‘WRONG’ statements:
A. Kali Linux is a flavour of Linux OS
B. We can use Macintosh on Linux OS also
C. Windows Surface is developed by Intel Corporation
D. Android is based on Linux OS
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (4) B and C Only
Solution:
Let us examine each statement:
Therefore, the wrong statements are:
B and C.
Hence, the correct answer is (4) B and C Only.
Correct Answer: (4) B and C Only
Solution:
Let us examine each statement:
Therefore, the wrong statements are:
B and C.
Hence, the correct answer is (4) B and C Only.
Choose the ‘WRONG’ statements:
A. ‘OLED’ stands for Organic light emitting Diodes
B. ‘Fastag’ is an example of RFID
C. ‘CAD’ stands for Computer Algorithm of Design
D. ‘RFID’ stands for Rapid Frequency Identification
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (1) C and D Only
Solution:
Let us examine each statement:
Therefore, the wrong statements are:
C and D.
Hence, the correct answer is (1) C and D Only.
| Term | Correct Full Form / Meaning |
|---|---|
| OLED | Organic Light-Emitting Diodes |
| FASTag | Uses RFID technology |
| CAD | Computer-Aided Design |
| RFID | Radio Frequency Identification |
Correct Answer: (1) C and D Only
Solution:
Let us examine each statement:
Therefore, the wrong statements are:
C and D.
Hence, the correct answer is (1) C and D Only.
| Term | Correct Full Form / Meaning |
|---|---|
| OLED | Organic Light-Emitting Diodes |
| FASTag | Uses RFID technology |
| CAD | Computer-Aided Design |
| RFID | Radio Frequency Identification |
Match List – I with List – II :
| List – I (Type of e-resource) | List – II (Description) |
|---|---|
| A. e-Journals | I. used for storing a larger volume of data |
| B. e-books | II. published on the web as well as in the digital format |
| C. e-Zines | III. a piece of software |
| D. CD-ROMS | IV. can be used to store articles on a file server in the from of a magazine |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Solution:
Let us match each type of e-resource with its appropriate description:
Therefore, the correct matching is:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.
Hence, the correct answer is (1).
Correct Answer: (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Solution:
Let us match each type of e-resource with its appropriate description:
Therefore, the correct matching is:
A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.
Hence, the correct answer is (1).
What is the major source of pollutant lead in homes?
(1) Furniture
(2) Paint
(3) Utensils
(4) Notebooks
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (2) Paint
Solution:
Lead-based paint is a major potential source of lead
exposure inside homes, particularly in older buildings where paints
containing lead were historically used.
As lead paint deteriorates, it can produce
paint chips and contaminated dust. Children may be
exposed by touching contaminated surfaces or through hand-to-mouth
contact.
Therefore, among the given options, paint is the major
source of lead pollution in homes.
Hence, the correct answer is (2) Paint.
Correct Answer: (2) Paint
Solution:
Lead-based paint is a major potential source of lead
exposure inside homes, particularly in older buildings where paints
containing lead were historically used.
As lead paint deteriorates, it can produce
paint chips and contaminated dust. Children may be
exposed by touching contaminated surfaces or through hand-to-mouth
contact.
Therefore, among the given options, paint is the major
source of lead pollution in homes.
Hence, the correct answer is (2) Paint.
What is Noise Induced Permanent Threshold Shifts (NIPTS) ?
Correct Answer: (3) Shift in permanent threshold due to years of high level of industrial noise
Solution:
NIPTS stands for Noise-Induced Permanent Threshold
Shift. It refers to a permanent reduction in hearing
sensitivity caused by prolonged or repeated exposure to
excessive noise.
It is commonly associated with long-term exposure to high levels
of occupational or industrial noise. Unlike a temporary
threshold shift, the hearing loss associated with NIPTS does not
return to the previous level after the noise exposure stops.
Therefore, the correct answer is (3).
Quick Revision:
TTS = Temporary Threshold Shift → hearing sensitivity may recover.
NIPTS = Noise-Induced Permanent Threshold Shift → permanent hearing
impairment due to excessive noise exposure.
Correct Answer: (3) Shift in permanent threshold due to years of high level of industrial noise
Solution:
NIPTS stands for Noise-Induced Permanent Threshold
Shift. It refers to a permanent reduction in hearing
sensitivity caused by prolonged or repeated exposure to
excessive noise.
It is commonly associated with long-term exposure to high levels
of occupational or industrial noise. Unlike a temporary
threshold shift, the hearing loss associated with NIPTS does not
return to the previous level after the noise exposure stops.
Therefore, the correct answer is (3).
Quick Revision:
TTS = Temporary Threshold Shift → hearing sensitivity may recover.
NIPTS = Noise-Induced Permanent Threshold Shift → permanent hearing
impairment due to excessive noise exposure.
Arrange the sequence of processes leading to formation of ozone hole:
A. De-humidification, de-nitrification
B. Vortex formation
C. Pre-conditioning
D. Very low temperature polar stratosphere clouds
E. Ozone destruction by catalysis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (2) B, D, A, C, E
Solution:
According to the given answer key, the processes leading to the
formation of the ozone hole are arranged as follows:
Therefore, the sequence expected in the official answer key
is:
B → D → A → C → E.
Hence, the correct answer is (2).
Correct Answer: (2) B, D, A, C, E
Solution:
According to the given answer key, the processes leading to the
formation of the ozone hole are arranged as follows:
Therefore, the sequence expected in the official answer key
is:
B → D → A → C → E.
Hence, the correct answer is (2).
Choose the correct statements from the following regarding targets under Sustainable Development Goals:
A. Target under SDG8 is to sustain 7% GDP in least developed countries
B. Target under SDG3 is to ensure universal access to sexual and reproductive health care by 2030
C. Target under SDG4 is to ensure equal access for all women and men to affordable quality higher education by 2030
D. Target under SDG7 is to build resilient infrastructure, promote inclusive and sustainable industrialization, and foster innovation
E. Target under SDG6 to improve water quality by reducing pollution by 2030
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (2) A, B, C and E Only
Solution:
Let us examine each statement:
Therefore, the correct statements are:
A, B, C and E only.
Hence, the correct answer is (2).
| Statement | Correct/Incorrect | Relevant SDG Target |
|---|---|---|
| A | ✓ Correct | SDG 8 – Target 8.1 |
| B | ✓ Correct | SDG 3 – Target 3.7 |
| C | ✓ Correct | SDG 4 – Target 4.3 |
| D | ✗ Incorrect | The statement belongs to SDG 9, not SDG 7 |
| E | ✓ Correct | SDG 6 – Target 6.3 |
Correct Answer: (2) A, B, C and E Only
Solution:
Let us examine each statement:
Therefore, the correct statements are:
A, B, C and E only.
Hence, the correct answer is (2).
| Statement | Correct/Incorrect | Relevant SDG Target |
|---|---|---|
| A | ✓ Correct | SDG 8 – Target 8.1 |
| B | ✓ Correct | SDG 3 – Target 3.7 |
| C | ✓ Correct | SDG 4 – Target 4.3 |
| D | ✗ Incorrect | The statement belongs to SDG 9, not SDG 7 |
| E | ✓ Correct | SDG 6 – Target 6.3 |
Match List – I with List – II :
| List – I (Type of Disaster) | List – II (Consequences) |
|---|---|
| A. Biological disaster | I. Flood, drought, storm |
| B. Geophysical disaster | II. Epidemic, insect infestation |
| C. Hydro meterological disaster | III. Transport disaster, riots |
| D. Anthropogenic disaster | IV. Earthquake, volcano, landslide |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
The correct matching is based on the nature and origin of different types of disasters:
| List-I: Type of Disaster | List-II: Examples / Consequences | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Biological disaster | II. Epidemic, insect infestation | Biological disasters arise from biological agents such as pathogens, epidemics, or harmful organisms. |
| B. Geophysical disaster | IV. Earthquake, volcano, landslide | Geophysical disasters originate from geological or earth processes, including earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and landslides. |
| C. Hydrometeorological disaster | I. Flood, drought, storm | These disasters are associated with atmospheric, hydrological and weather-related processes. |
| D. Anthropogenic disaster | III. Transport disaster, riots | Anthropogenic disasters are caused by human activities, accidents, conflicts or negligence. |
A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
Therefore, the correct option is:
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
The correct matching is based on the nature and origin of different types of disasters:
| List-I: Type of Disaster | List-II: Examples / Consequences | Explanation |
|---|---|---|
| A. Biological disaster | II. Epidemic, insect infestation | Biological disasters arise from biological agents such as pathogens, epidemics, or harmful organisms. |
| B. Geophysical disaster | IV. Earthquake, volcano, landslide | Geophysical disasters originate from geological or earth processes, including earthquakes, volcanic eruptions and landslides. |
| C. Hydrometeorological disaster | I. Flood, drought, storm | These disasters are associated with atmospheric, hydrological and weather-related processes. |
| D. Anthropogenic disaster | III. Transport disaster, riots | Anthropogenic disasters are caused by human activities, accidents, conflicts or negligence. |
A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
Therefore, the correct option is:
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
The stock-taking done at the first national convention on Consumer Protection served to highlight the areas that called for special attention to sustain the momentum of the movement as genuine forum for safeguarding the people’s interests. Spreading awareness about the rights of the consumers and the relief open to them in case they did not get their money’s worth of goods and services has rightly been identified as the first priority.
While this may not be a difficult task in urban areas, where the movement is concentrated at present, taking it to the vast rural hinterland calls for a multi-media approach in which radio and television have a crucial role to play. The involvement of the 500-odd consumer organizations in the country in publicising the concept of fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding, if the message is conveyed through village bodies. Government efforts remain confined at best to setting up the infrastructure after the formal launch of the movement with the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act. The mounting backlog of cases in consumer courts, points to the need for toning up the district level redressal machinery.
Sub questions
The first national convention on consumer protection has:
Correct Answer: (1) highlighted the areas of special attention
The answer is directly stated in the passage:
“The stock-taking done at the first national convention on Consumer Protection served to highlight the areas that called for special attention to sustain the momentum of the movement…”
Therefore, the first national convention primarily highlighted the areas requiring special attention.
Final Answer: (1) Highlighted the areas of special attention.
Correct Answer: (1) highlighted the areas of special attention
The answer is directly stated in the passage:
“The stock-taking done at the first national convention on Consumer Protection served to highlight the areas that called for special attention to sustain the momentum of the movement…”
Therefore, the first national convention primarily highlighted the areas requiring special attention.
Final Answer: (1) Highlighted the areas of special attention.
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
The stock-taking done at the first national convention on Consumer Protection served to highlight the areas that called for special attention to sustain the momentum of the movement as genuine forum for safeguarding the people’s interests. Spreading awareness about the rights of the consumers and the relief open to them in case they did not get their money’s worth of goods and services has rightly been identified as the first priority.
While this may not be a difficult task in urban areas, where the movement is concentrated at present, taking it to the vast rural hinterland calls for a multi-media approach in which radio and television have a crucial role to play. The involvement of the 500-odd consumer organizations in the country in publicising the concept of fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding, if the message is conveyed through village bodies. Government efforts remain confined at best to setting up the infrastructure after the formal launch of the movement with the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act. The mounting backlog of cases in consumer courts, points to the need for toning up the district level redressal machinery.
Sub questions
For bringing awareness among the consumers, whose role, according to the author, is more crucial?
Correct Answer: (2) Radio and television
According to the passage, spreading awareness about consumer rights in rural areas requires a multi-media approach. The author specifically states that:
“…radio and television have a crucial role to play.”
Therefore, radio and television are considered more crucial for bringing awareness among consumers, particularly in the vast rural areas.
Final Answer: (2) Radio and television
Correct Answer: (2) Radio and television
According to the passage, spreading awareness about consumer rights in rural areas requires a multi-media approach. The author specifically states that:
“…radio and television have a crucial role to play.”
Therefore, radio and television are considered more crucial for bringing awareness among consumers, particularly in the vast rural areas.
Final Answer: (2) Radio and television
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
The stock-taking done at the first national convention on Consumer Protection served to highlight the areas that called for special attention to sustain the momentum of the movement as genuine forum for safeguarding the people’s interests. Spreading awareness about the rights of the consumers and the relief open to them in case they did not get their money’s worth of goods and services has rightly been identified as the first priority.
While this may not be a difficult task in urban areas, where the movement is concentrated at present, taking it to the vast rural hinterland calls for a multi-media approach in which radio and television have a crucial role to play. The involvement of the 500-odd consumer organizations in the country in publicising the concept of fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding, if the message is conveyed through village bodies. Government efforts remain confined at best to setting up the infrastructure after the formal launch of the movement with the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act. The mounting backlog of cases in consumer courts, points to the need for toning up the district level redressal machinery.
Sub questions
Government contributed to the consumer protection movement by:
Correct Answer: (3) setting up requisite infrastructure
The passage clearly states:
“Government efforts remain confined at best to setting up the infrastructure after the formal launch of the movement with the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act.”
Thus, according to the author, the government’s contribution to the consumer protection movement was primarily setting up the requisite infrastructure.
Government’s role → Setting up infrastructure
Final Answer: (3) Setting up requisite infrastructure
Correct Answer: (3) setting up requisite infrastructure
The passage clearly states:
“Government efforts remain confined at best to setting up the infrastructure after the formal launch of the movement with the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act.”
Thus, according to the author, the government’s contribution to the consumer protection movement was primarily setting up the requisite infrastructure.
Government’s role → Setting up infrastructure
Final Answer: (3) Setting up requisite infrastructure
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
The stock-taking done at the first national convention on Consumer Protection served to highlight the areas that called for special attention to sustain the momentum of the movement as genuine forum for safeguarding the people’s interests. Spreading awareness about the rights of the consumers and the relief open to them in case they did not get their money’s worth of goods and services has rightly been identified as the first priority.
While this may not be a difficult task in urban areas, where the movement is concentrated at present, taking it to the vast rural hinterland calls for a multi-media approach in which radio and television have a crucial role to play. The involvement of the 500-odd consumer organizations in the country in publicising the concept of fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding, if the message is conveyed through village bodies. Government efforts remain confined at best to setting up the infrastructure after the formal launch of the movement with the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act. The mounting backlog of cases in consumer courts, points to the need for toning up the district level redressal machinery.
Sub questions
What, according to the author, will prove rewarding with reference to consumer protection?
Correct Answer: (1) Remedies against the violation of fair trade practices
According to the passage, the involvement of consumer organizations in publicising fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding, provided the message is conveyed through village bodies.
“The involvement of the 500-odd consumer organizations in the country in publicising the concept of fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding…”
Final Answer: (1) Remedies against the violation of fair trade practices
Correct Answer: (1) Remedies against the violation of fair trade practices
According to the passage, the involvement of consumer organizations in publicising fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding, provided the message is conveyed through village bodies.
“The involvement of the 500-odd consumer organizations in the country in publicising the concept of fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding…”
Final Answer: (1) Remedies against the violation of fair trade practices
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
The stock-taking done at the first national convention on Consumer Protection served to highlight the areas that called for special attention to sustain the momentum of the movement as genuine forum for safeguarding the people’s interests. Spreading awareness about the rights of the consumers and the relief open to them in case they did not get their money’s worth of goods and services has rightly been identified as the first priority.
While this may not be a difficult task in urban areas, where the movement is concentrated at present, taking it to the vast rural hinterland calls for a multi-media approach in which radio and television have a crucial role to play. The involvement of the 500-odd consumer organizations in the country in publicising the concept of fair trade practices and the remedies available against their violation will prove rewarding, if the message is conveyed through village bodies. Government efforts remain confined at best to setting up the infrastructure after the formal launch of the movement with the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act. The mounting backlog of cases in consumer courts, points to the need for toning up the district level redressal machinery.
Sub questions
Ensuring consumer Protection in rural areas requires :
Correct Answer: (2) Use of different media
The passage explicitly states that taking the consumer protection movement to the vast rural hinterland requires a multi-media approach, with radio and television playing a crucial role.
“…taking it to the vast rural hinterland calls for a multi-media approach in which radio and television have a crucial role to play.”
Therefore, ensuring consumer protection in rural areas requires the use of different media to spread awareness about consumer rights and available remedies.
Rural consumer protection → Multi-media approach → Radio + Television
Final Answer: (2) Use of different media
Correct Answer: (2) Use of different media
The passage explicitly states that taking the consumer protection movement to the vast rural hinterland requires a multi-media approach, with radio and television playing a crucial role.
“…taking it to the vast rural hinterland calls for a multi-media approach in which radio and television have a crucial role to play.”
Therefore, ensuring consumer protection in rural areas requires the use of different media to spread awareness about consumer rights and available remedies.
Rural consumer protection → Multi-media approach → Radio + Television
Final Answer: (2) Use of different media
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