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Direction for Questions (1-5):
The following table shows the distribution of male (M) and female (F) athletes who participated in an Annual Sports Event from five different countries A-E over the years 2016 to 2021. Based on the data in the table, answer the question.
| Countries → Years↓ | A M | A F | B M | B F | C M | C F | D M | D F | E M | E F |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2016 | 220 | 165 | 315 | 210 | 225 | 155 | 280 | 205 | 235 | 105 |
| 2017 | 330 | 210 | 420 | 310 | 345 | 165 | 420 | 315 | 390 | 260 |
| 2018 | 230 | 90 | 370 | 240 | 240 | 140 | 465 | 365 | 435 | 325 |
| 2019 | 480 | 245 | 570 | 420 | 330 | 210 | 630 | 470 | 445 | 290 |
| 2020 | 590 | 320 | 530 | 260 | 390 | 315 | 720 | 510 | 590 | 460 |
| 2021 | 410 | 260 | 320 | 360 | 540 | 345 | 780 | 605 | 680 | 490 |
Q.1. The difference between the number of male and female athletes from country C was the second highest in the year
Ans: (b) 2017
Explanation: Differences for Country C over the years: 2016: 225 – 155 = 70; 2017: 345 – 165 = 180; 2019: 330 – 210 = 120; 2021: 540 – 345 = 195. Highest difference is in 2021 (195), and the second highest is in 2017 (180).
Ans: (b) 2017
Explanation: Differences for Country C over the years: 2016: 225 – 155 = 70; 2017: 345 – 165 = 180; 2019: 330 – 210 = 120; 2021: 540 – 345 = 195. Highest difference is in 2021 (195), and the second highest is in 2017 (180).
Q.2. The average number of female athletes who participated from Country B over the years together was
Ans: (a) 300
Explanation: Average of female athletes from Country B = Sum of female participants / number of years = (210 + 310 + 240 + 420 + 260 + 360) / 6 = 1,800 / 6 = 300.
Ans: (a) 300
Explanation: Average of female athletes from Country B = Sum of female participants / number of years = (210 + 310 + 240 + 420 + 260 + 360) / 6 = 1,800 / 6 = 300.
Q.3. The approximate percentage decrease in the number of male athletes who participated from Country C in the year 2018 as compared to the previous year was
Ans: (c) 30%
Explanation: Male participants from Country C in 2018 = 240. Male participants from Country C in 2017 = 345. Decrease = 345 – 240 = 105. Decrease percentage = (105 × 100) / 345 ≈ 30.43% (approx 30%).
Ans: (c) 30%
Explanation: Male participants from Country C in 2018 = 240. Male participants from Country C in 2017 = 345. Decrease = 345 – 240 = 105. Decrease percentage = (105 × 100) / 345 ≈ 30.43% (approx 30%).
Q.4. The number of female athletes who participated from Country E in the year 2020 was % of the total number of athletes who participated from Country B in the year 2019.
Ans: (d) 46%
Explanation: Female participants from Country E in 2020 = 460. Total participants from Country B in 2019 = 570 + 420 = 990. Percentage = (460 × 100) / 990 ≈ 46.46% (approx 46%).
Ans: (d) 46%
Explanation: Female participants from Country E in 2020 = 460. Total participants from Country B in 2019 = 570 + 420 = 990. Percentage = (460 × 100) / 990 ≈ 46.46% (approx 46%).
Q.5. In the year 2017, the total number of athletes who participated in the event was the second highest from country
Ans: (b) B
Explanation: Total athletes in 2017 per country: A = 330 + 210 = 540; B = 420 + 310 = 730; C = 345 + 165 = 510; D = 420 + 315 = 735; E = 390 + 260 = 650. Highest is Country D (735), and second highest is Country B (730).
Ans: (b) B
Explanation: Total athletes in 2017 per country: A = 330 + 210 = 540; B = 420 + 310 = 730; C = 345 + 165 = 510; D = 420 + 315 = 735; E = 390 + 260 = 650. Highest is Country D (735), and second highest is Country B (730).
Q.6. The quality of one’s memory can generally be judged on the basis of his/her
Ans: (a) Power of retention
Explanation: Power of retention is a key quality of memory power and a characteristic of the memory level of learning.
Ans: (a) Power of retention
Explanation: Power of retention is a key quality of memory power and a characteristic of the memory level of learning.
Q.7. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Padlet is a game-based platform used in educational institutions to create quizzes, conversions and surveys.
Statement II: Seasaw is an app-based platform that allows students to work together on texts, PDFs drawings and videos etc.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation: Padlet is an online notice board tool rather than a game-based quiz platform (Statement I is incorrect). Seesaw is indeed an app-based platform allowing students to collaborate on texts, PDFs, drawings, and videos (Statement II is correct).
Ans: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation: Padlet is an online notice board tool rather than a game-based quiz platform (Statement I is incorrect). Seesaw is indeed an app-based platform allowing students to collaborate on texts, PDFs, drawings, and videos (Statement II is correct).
Q.8. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Vygotsky emphasized the significant role played by adults and more able peers in children’s learning.
Statement II: The zone of proximal development is the area, where the child solves a problem alone without the help of others.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation: Vygotsky’s socio-cultural theory emphasizes the role of adults and more knowledgeable peers (Statement I is correct). The zone of proximal development (ZPD) is the gap between what a child can do alone and what they can achieve with guidance, not just solving alone (Statement II is incorrect).
Ans: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation: Vygotsky’s socio-cultural theory emphasizes the role of adults and more knowledgeable peers (Statement I is correct). The zone of proximal development (ZPD) is the gap between what a child can do alone and what they can achieve with guidance, not just solving alone (Statement II is incorrect).
Q.9. According to David and Johnson, which of the following are the basic elements of cooperative learning groups?
1. Self conceptualisation
2. Individual accountability
3. Skill development
4. Positive interdependence
5. Promotive interaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (c) 2, 4 and 5 only
Explanation: According to David and Johnson, the key elements of cooperative learning include positive interdependence, individual accountability, promotive interaction, social skills, and group processing.
Ans: (c) 2, 4 and 5 only
Explanation: According to David and Johnson, the key elements of cooperative learning include positive interdependence, individual accountability, promotive interaction, social skills, and group processing.
Q.10. According to Kohlberg’s theory the conventional level of moral development includes the following stages:
1. Obedience orientation
2. Being Nice/Relationships orientation
3. Social contract orientation
4. Law and Order orientation
5. Universal Ethical Principles orientation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (c) 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Kohlberg’s conventional level includes Stage 3 (Good boy-good girl / Being Nice/Relationships orientation) and Stage 4 (Law and Order orientation).
Ans: (c) 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Kohlberg’s conventional level includes Stage 3 (Good boy-good girl / Being Nice/Relationships orientation) and Stage 4 (Law and Order orientation).
Q.11. The tendency of researchers to subtly and inadvertently affect the behaviours of participants in a study, obscuring the true effect of the independent variable, is called
Ans: (b) Experimenter Bias effect
Explanation: Experimenter bias occurs when a researcher’s expectations or personal biases unintentionally influence the participants or results of a study.
Ans: (b) Experimenter Bias effect
Explanation: Experimenter bias occurs when a researcher’s expectations or personal biases unintentionally influence the participants or results of a study.
Q.12. Arrange the following components of a research paper written in APA style, in the correct order:
1. Figures
2. Methods
3. Introduction
4. Tables
5. Results
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
Explanation: Standard APA research paper component order: Introduction (3), Methods (2), Results (5), followed by Tables (4) and Figures (1).
Ans: (b) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
Explanation: Standard APA research paper component order: Introduction (3), Methods (2), Results (5), followed by Tables (4) and Figures (1).
Q.13. The extent to which a measure yields the same scores across different times, groups of people, or versions of the instrument, is called:
Ans: (a) Reliability
Explanation: Reliability refers to consistency and stability of test scores across time and conditions.
Ans: (a) Reliability
Explanation: Reliability refers to consistency and stability of test scores across time and conditions.
Q.14. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Snowball sampling is a type of random sampling.
Statement II: Snowball sampling is helpful when participants belong to hard-to-reach groups.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation: Snowball sampling is a non-probability/non-random sampling technique (Statement I is incorrect). It is widely used and helpful for reaching hidden or hard-to-reach populations (Statement II is correct).
Ans: (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Explanation: Snowball sampling is a non-probability/non-random sampling technique (Statement I is incorrect). It is widely used and helpful for reaching hidden or hard-to-reach populations (Statement II is correct).
Q.15. In the case of negatively skewed distribution
Ans: (d) Mean < Median < Mode
Explanation: In a negatively skewed distribution, the tail is on the left side, and the relationship between measures of central tendency is Mean < Median < Mode (or Mode > Median > Mean).
Ans: (d) Mean < Median < Mode
Explanation: In a negatively skewed distribution, the tail is on the left side, and the relationship between measures of central tendency is Mean < Median < Mode (or Mode > Median > Mean).
Q.16. One of the cool media of communication is:
Ans: (b) Television
Explanation: According to media theory (Marshall McLuhan), television is classified as a cool medium because it requires active participation and low-definition sensory involvement compared to print.
Ans: (b) Television
Explanation: According to media theory (Marshall McLuhan), television is classified as a cool medium because it requires active participation and low-definition sensory involvement compared to print.
Q.17. In mass communication print is considered as a/an
Ans: (c) Mechanical medium
Explanation: Print media relies on mechanical printing processes for mass distribution.
Ans: (c) Mechanical medium
Explanation: Print media relies on mechanical printing processes for mass distribution.
Q.18. Which of the following are the characteristics of interactive communication?
1. It is decentralised.
2. It is state controlled.
3. It is highly centralized.
4. It is a two-way communication.
5. It provides universal citizenship.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) 1, 4, 5 only
Explanation: Interactive communication is decentralized, operates as a two-way communication channel, and promotes universal participation/citizenship.
Ans: (d) 1, 4, 5 only
Explanation: Interactive communication is decentralized, operates as a two-way communication channel, and promotes universal participation/citizenship.
Q.19. Which of the following make classroom communication interesting?
1. Many asides while speaking
2. Fruitful discussions
3. Use of relevant transitions
4. Finding out the correct context
5. Pressurising the students with authoritarian commands.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Fruitful discussions, relevant transitions, and correct contextualization enhance classroom engagement and make communication effective and interesting.
Ans: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Fruitful discussions, relevant transitions, and correct contextualization enhance classroom engagement and make communication effective and interesting.
Q.20. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The new technologies have brought in ‘Market Specific Communication’.
Statement II: The second media age has made the interactive technologies of communication to change the mediascape.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation: New technologies have enabled market-specific communication targeted at specific audiences, and the second media age has transformed the global mediascape through interactive technologies.
Ans: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Explanation: New technologies have enabled market-specific communication targeted at specific audiences, and the second media age has transformed the global mediascape through interactive technologies.
Q.21. In a certain coding language:
1. ‘odo pado fao’ means ‘order packed food’
2. ‘pado fao sa digo’ means ‘packed food is good’
3. ‘digo yao mao’ means ‘good young man’
4. ‘Yao mao sa sito’ mean ‘young man is strong’
Which of the following means ‘order’ and ‘strong’, respectively in that language?
Ans: (d) ‘odo’ and ‘sito’
Explanation: Comparing codes: ‘pado fao’ = ‘packed food’. Therefore ‘odo’ = ‘order’. Comparing codes 3 and 4, ‘yao mao’ = ‘young man’, so ‘sito’ = ‘strong’. Thus ‘odo’ and ‘sito’.
Ans: (d) ‘odo’ and ‘sito’
Explanation: Comparing codes: ‘pado fao’ = ‘packed food’. Therefore ‘odo’ = ‘order’. Comparing codes 3 and 4, ‘yao mao’ = ‘young man’, so ‘sito’ = ‘strong’. Thus ‘odo’ and ‘sito’.
Q.22. In a competitive examination held in the year 2000, a total of 6,00,000 (6.0 lakh) students appeared and 40% passed the examination. Forty percent (40%) of the total students were females and the rest were males. The pass percentage among the males was 50%. Find the pass percentage among the females.
Ans: (a) 25%
Explanation: Total students = 6,00,000. Total passed = 2,40,000. Females = 2,40,000, Males = 3,60,000. Male passed = 50% of 3,60,000 = 1,80,000. Female passed = 2,40,000 – 1,80,000 = 60,000. Female pass % = (60,000 / 2,40,000) × 100 = 25%.
Ans: (a) 25%
Explanation: Total students = 6,00,000. Total passed = 2,40,000. Females = 2,40,000, Males = 3,60,000. Male passed = 50% of 3,60,000 = 1,80,000. Female passed = 2,40,000 – 1,80,000 = 60,000. Female pass % = (60,000 / 2,40,000) × 100 = 25%.
Q.23. What number should replace the question mark (?) in the following series: 450, 473, 519, 588, 680, 795?
Ans: (a) 933
Explanation: Differences: 23, 46, 69, 92, 115 (multiples of 23). Next difference is 138, so 795 + 138 = 933.
Ans: (a) 933
Explanation: Differences: 23, 46, 69, 92, 115 (multiples of 23). Next difference is 138, so 795 + 138 = 933.
Q.24. A businessman buys a house for 9.0 lakhs. He puts the house on rent and keeps 15% of each month’s rent separately for repairs. After paying 2106 as annual taxes on the rent, he realizes 10% annually on his investment. Find the monthly rent of the house.
Ans: (c) 9,030
Explanation: Annual return = 10% of 9,00,000 = 90,000. Total annual rent required including taxes = 90,000 + 2,106 = 92,106 (which is 85% of total rent after 15% repair deduction). Total annual rent = 92,106 / 0.85 = 1,08,360. Monthly rent = 1,08,360 / 12 = 9,030.
Ans: (c) 9,030
Explanation: Annual return = 10% of 9,00,000 = 90,000. Total annual rent required including taxes = 90,000 + 2,106 = 92,106 (which is 85% of total rent after 15% repair deduction). Total annual rent = 92,106 / 0.85 = 1,08,360. Monthly rent = 1,08,360 / 12 = 9,030.
Q.25. Sum of 3 consecutive odd numbers and 3 consecutive even numbers together is 231. Also the smallest odd number is 11 less than the smallest even number. What is the sum of the largest odd number and the largest even number?
Ans: (a) 81
Explanation: Let smallest odd number = x, then smallest even number = x + 11. Sum of 3 odd (x, x+2, x+4) and 3 even (x+11, x+13, x+15) = 6x + 45 = 231 ⇒ 6x = 186 ⇒ x = 31. Largest odd = 35, largest even = 46. Sum = 35 + 46 = 81.
Ans: (a) 81
Explanation: Let smallest odd number = x, then smallest even number = x + 11. Sum of 3 odd (x, x+2, x+4) and 3 even (x+11, x+13, x+15) = 6x + 45 = 231 ⇒ 6x = 186 ⇒ x = 31. Largest odd = 35, largest even = 46. Sum = 35 + 46 = 81.
Q.26. “First it is staying out late, then it is not calling home, then wild parties, and before you know it, your life will be completely out of control. Someday you will be glad that you had a lockdown.” Which informal fallacy is committed in the above argument?
Ans: (b) Slippery slope
Explanation: A slippery slope fallacy assumes that a relatively small first step will lead to a chain of catastrophic events without adequate evidence.
Ans: (b) Slippery slope
Explanation: A slippery slope fallacy assumes that a relatively small first step will lead to a chain of catastrophic events without adequate evidence.
Q.27. Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?
1. No philosophers are industrialists.
2. No industrialists are philosophers.
3. All non-industrialists are non-philosophers.
4. All philosophers are non-industrialists.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Statements 2, 3, and 4 are logically equivalent to ‘No philosophers are industrialists’ through conversion, obversion, and contraposition.
Ans: (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Statements 2, 3, and 4 are logically equivalent to ‘No philosophers are industrialists’ through conversion, obversion, and contraposition.
Q.28. Which of the following statements are logically contradictory to each other?
1. All philosophers are industrialists.
2. Some philosophers are not industrialists.
3. No philosophers are industrialists.
4. No industrialists are philosophers.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Universal affirmative (‘All S are P’, statement 1) and particular negative (‘Some S are not P’, statement 2) are contradictory pairs (A and O).
Ans: (a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Universal affirmative (‘All S are P’, statement 1) and particular negative (‘Some S are not P’, statement 2) are contradictory pairs (A and O).
Q.29. If the statement ‘No philosophers are industrialists’ is given as true, which of the following statements can be immediately inferred from it to be true?
Ans: (a) No philosophers are rich persons? Wait, let’s check correct option: Some philosophers are not industrialists or similar, or let’s review key. Key says a. No philosophers are rich persons? Wait, let’s check logical immediate inference (subalternation or conversion).
Explanation: From a universal negative statement (‘No S are P’), we can immediately infer particular negative statements by subalternation (e.g. ‘Some philosophers are not industrialists’).
Ans: (a) No philosophers are rich persons? Wait, let’s check correct option: Some philosophers are not industrialists or similar, or let’s review key. Key says a. No philosophers are rich persons? Wait, let’s check logical immediate inference (subalternation or conversion).
Explanation: From a universal negative statement (‘No S are P’), we can immediately infer particular negative statements by subalternation (e.g. ‘Some philosophers are not industrialists’).
Q.30. According to Nyaya (Classical Indian school of Logic) which means of knowledge (pramana) is used in the following argument – “The world is an effect and hence it must have an efficient cause like all objects e.g. pots, cloth etc. do. That efficient cause is God”.
Ans: (b) Inference (anumana)
Explanation: Inferring the existence of an efficient cause (God) based on the observation that the world is an effect is an example of Anumana (Inference).
Ans: (b) Inference (anumana)
Explanation: Inferring the existence of an efficient cause (God) based on the observation that the world is an effect is an example of Anumana (Inference).
Q.31. Which one of the following acronyms matches incorrectly with their full form?
Ans: (c) GPS-Global Positioning Sensor
Explanation: GPS stands for Global Positioning System, not Global Positioning Sensor.
Ans: (c) GPS-Global Positioning Sensor
Explanation: GPS stands for Global Positioning System, not Global Positioning Sensor.
Q.32. Identify the correct order of the following terms A-E to complete the paragraph given below that explains how data is sent securely over the Internet using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol:
‘The browser requests to the [ ] itself by providing its [ ] to identify [ ] This is sent and a [ ] check is performed to see if it is [ ] sends a [ ] back to the web server and data transmission begins.’
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (b) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
Explanation: Correct sequence of terms completing the TLS secure data transmission description.
Ans: (b) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4
Explanation: Correct sequence of terms completing the TLS secure data transmission description.
Q.33. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: AI is an artificially created environment used to give a feeling of being there, whereas virtual reality learns from changing circumstances.
Statement II: Unlike dot matrix and inkjet printers, laser printers don’t use ink when producing documents.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Explanation: Both statements are factually incorrect regarding AI/VR definitions and laser printer toner/ink mechanics.
Ans: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Explanation: Both statements are factually incorrect regarding AI/VR definitions and laser printer toner/ink mechanics.
Q.34. Which of the following are the main benefits of networking computers and devices rather than using a number of standalone computers?
1. Devices, such as printers, can be shared, thus reducing costs.
2. Licenses to run software on networks are often far cheaper than buying licenses for an equivalent number of standalone computers.
3. Users cannot share files and data.
4. Access to reliable data that comes from a central source, such as file server.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Networking allows sharing devices (1), cost-effective licensing (2), and centralized reliable data access (4). Statement 3 is false as users *can* share files.
Ans: (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Networking allows sharing devices (1), cost-effective licensing (2), and centralized reliable data access (4). Statement 3 is false as users *can* share files.
Q.35. Match List I with List II.
| LIST I (Computer Term) | LIST II (Description) |
|---|---|
| A. Disk defragmenter | I. Utility that prepares a disk to allow files to be stored and retrieved. |
| B. Disk formatter | II. Storage media with no moving parts. |
| C. Device driver | III. Utility that reorganises sectors on a hard disk so files can be stored in contiguous data blocks. |
| D. Solid state drive | IV. Software that communicates with OS and translates data into understood format. |
Choose the correct code from the below:
Ans: (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Explanation: Disk defragmenter reorganizes sectors (A-III); Disk formatter prepares a disk (B-I); Device driver communicates with OS (C-IV); Solid state drive is storage with no moving parts (D-II).
Ans: (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Explanation: Disk defragmenter reorganizes sectors (A-III); Disk formatter prepares a disk (B-I); Device driver communicates with OS (C-IV); Solid state drive is storage with no moving parts (D-II).
Q.36. Which of the following is measured in Dobson Units?
Ans: (b) Stratospheric Ozone
Explanation: Dobson Unit is the standard unit of measurement for ozone concentration in the atmosphere (stratospheric ozone).
Ans: (b) Stratospheric Ozone
Explanation: Dobson Unit is the standard unit of measurement for ozone concentration in the atmosphere (stratospheric ozone).
Q.37. Photo Electro Chemical (PEC) solar cells are based on
Ans: (d) Hybrid structure of inorganic semiconductors and an electrolyte
Explanation: PEC solar cells utilize a hybrid structure combining inorganic semiconductors and an electrolyte interface to convert solar energy.
Ans: (d) Hybrid structure of inorganic semiconductors and an electrolyte
Explanation: PEC solar cells utilize a hybrid structure combining inorganic semiconductors and an electrolyte interface to convert solar energy.
Q.38. Match List I with List II.
| LIST I (Summit/Protocol) | LIST II (Year) |
|---|---|
| A. Montreal Protocol | I. 1992 |
| B. Rio Summit | II. 2015 |
| C. Kyoto Protocol | III. 1987 |
| D. Paris Agreement | IV. 1997 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Explanation: Montreal Protocol – 1987 (A-III); Rio Summit – 1992 (B-I); Kyoto Protocol – 1997 (C-IV); Paris Agreement – 2015 (D-II).
Ans: (a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Explanation: Montreal Protocol – 1987 (A-III); Rio Summit – 1992 (B-I); Kyoto Protocol – 1997 (C-IV); Paris Agreement – 2015 (D-II).
Q.39. Thermal expansion of oceans may lead to
Ans: (d) Sea level rise
Explanation: As ocean temperatures rise due to global warming, thermal expansion of water contributes directly to sea level rise.
Ans: (d) Sea level rise
Explanation: As ocean temperatures rise due to global warming, thermal expansion of water contributes directly to sea level rise.
Q.40. Waste stabilization ponds are:
1. Mainly oxidation ponds
2. Used to remove pathogen and organic contents
3. Natural treatment systems
4. Extremely quick
5. Most efficient in extremely cold weather.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Waste stabilization ponds function as natural oxidation ponds to remove organic content and pathogens from wastewater.
Ans: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Waste stabilization ponds function as natural oxidation ponds to remove organic content and pathogens from wastewater.
Q.41. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Governor of the State is the Chancellor of deemed universities.
Statement II: Deemed universities can design their own syllabus and course work.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation: Governors are chancellors of state universities, not deemed universities (Statement I is false). Deemed universities possess autonomy to design their own curricula and coursework (Statement II is true).
Ans: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Explanation: Governors are chancellors of state universities, not deemed universities (Statement I is false). Deemed universities possess autonomy to design their own curricula and coursework (Statement II is true).
Q.42. What is the full form of ‘DIKSHA’?
Ans: (a) Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing
Explanation: DIKSHA stands for Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing, a national platform for school education in India.
Ans: (a) Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing
Explanation: DIKSHA stands for Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing, a national platform for school education in India.
Q.43. Which of the following are the key ingredients of quality in-service teacher training?
1. Preparation of training material
2. Assessment of training needs
3. Development of appropriate curriculum/Modules
4. Assessment of the impact and outcome of the training.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: Quality in-service teacher training requires material preparation, training needs assessment, curriculum development, and impact/outcome assessment.
Ans: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: Quality in-service teacher training requires material preparation, training needs assessment, curriculum development, and impact/outcome assessment.
Q.44. According to NEP 2020 more HEIs shall be established and developed in underserved regions to ensure full
Ans: (a) Access, Equity and Inclusion
Explanation: NEP 2020 aims to establish HEIs in underserved regions to guarantee full Access, Equity, and Inclusion in higher education.
Ans: (a) Access, Equity and Inclusion
Explanation: NEP 2020 aims to establish HEIs in underserved regions to guarantee full Access, Equity, and Inclusion in higher education.
Q.45. Which of the following recommendations were put forward by the University Education Commission appointed after independence by the Indian Government concerning medical education in India?
1. Medical colleges should admit a maximum number of hundred students.
2. History of medicine with special reference to Indian systems should be taught in the first degree course in medicine.
3. More importance should be attached to Public health, Engineering and Nursing.
4. There should be provision of ten beds per student admitted in the medical college.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: The Radhakrishnan Commission recommended capping admissions at 100 students, teaching the history of medicine with Indian systems, emphasizing public health/engineering/nursing, and providing ten beds per student.
Ans: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: The Radhakrishnan Commission recommended capping admissions at 100 students, teaching the history of medicine with Indian systems, emphasizing public health/engineering/nursing, and providing ten beds per student.
Direction for Questions (46-50):
Read the following passage and answer the question.
It was in this atmosphere of intense antagonism and hostility that Gokhale introduced his Elementary Education Bill in 1910. He called it ‘a small humble attempt to suggest the first steps of a journey, which is bound to prove long and tedious, but which must be performed, if the mass of our people are to emerge from their present condition.’ Gokhale argued:
Free and compulsory education is the first remedy of all the remedies to be applied…without compulsion the educational developments in the last 60 years have been hopelessly slow. The only way that the world has discovered to secure universal education in a country has been making it compulsory and free. Compulsion would operate harshly on the poorer classes of the community if it is not made free.
He suggested that only those students whose family income was 25 rupees and above per month should pay fees; for the rest, education was to be free. Out of the total expenditure required for it, two-thirds should be borne by the state and one-third by the local bodies. He suggested imposing an additional 8-anna tax on salt on the grounds that ‘my countrymen should eat less salt than that their children should continue to grow up in ignorance and darkness’.
Q.46. According to Gokhale, what percentage of the total expenditure on education should be borne by the state?
Ans: (c) 66%
Explanation: The passage specifies that two-thirds of the total expenditure should be borne by the state, which is approximately 66.67% (66%).
Ans: (c) 66%
Explanation: The passage specifies that two-thirds of the total expenditure should be borne by the state, which is approximately 66.67% (66%).
Q.47. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Gokhale believed that education was necessary for the Indian masses to be liberated from their miserable condition.
Statement II: Gokhale faced little resistance in the introduction of his bill on elementary education.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation: Gokhale believed education was necessary for the masses (Statement I is correct), but he introduced the bill in an atmosphere of ‘intense antagonism and hostility’, facing significant resistance (Statement II is incorrect).
Ans: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Explanation: Gokhale believed education was necessary for the masses (Statement I is correct), but he introduced the bill in an atmosphere of ‘intense antagonism and hostility’, facing significant resistance (Statement II is incorrect).
Q.48. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
1. The growth of education in India was very slow prior to 1910.
2. There was a need to make education compulsory for all according to Gokhale.
3. Gokhale believed that achieving education for all Indians was a distant dream.
4. Gokhale suggested that the majority of expenditure for education should be met by local bodies.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are supported by the passage (slow educational development, need for universal/compulsory education, long/tedious journey). Statement 4 is incorrect because the majority (two-thirds) was to be borne by the state, not local bodies.
Ans: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are supported by the passage (slow educational development, need for universal/compulsory education, long/tedious journey). Statement 4 is incorrect because the majority (two-thirds) was to be borne by the state, not local bodies.
Q.49. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Gokhale believed that education should be made free for the poor people.
Statement II: Gokhale suggested that an additional tax of 8-anna should be imposed on salt.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Explanation: Gokhale proposed free education for poorer classes (Statement I is correct) and suggested an additional 8-anna tax on salt to fund education (Statement II is correct).
Ans: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Explanation: Gokhale proposed free education for poorer classes (Statement I is correct) and suggested an additional 8-anna tax on salt to fund education (Statement II is correct).
Q.50. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Gokhale was not in favour of free education for the poor.
Reason R: He suggested that those students whose family income was Rs. 25 per month or more, should pay the education fees.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (d) A is not correct but R is correct.
Explanation: Assertion A is false because Gokhale strongly advocated for free education for the poor (free for those earning below Rs. 25/month). Reason R is correct as he suggested that families earning Rs. 25 or more per month should pay fees.
Ans: (d) A is not correct but R is correct.
Explanation: Assertion A is false because Gokhale strongly advocated for free education for the poor (free for those earning below Rs. 25/month). Reason R is correct as he suggested that families earning Rs. 25 or more per month should pay fees.
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