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Welcome to the CUET PG Political Science 2022 Mock Test!
This quiz is meticulously designed to assess your knowledge and understanding of key concepts and theories in political science, in line with the CUET PG syllabus.
Prepare yourself for success in the CUET PG examination. Good luck, and may your knowledge shine!
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Asymmetrical features of federalism in India include:
A. Fifth Schedule
B. Sixth Schedule
C. Article 371 A
D. Article 371 G
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is: (3) A, B, C and D
Asymmetrical features of Indian federalism refer to special provisions made for certain regions or states based on their unique needs and circumstances. The following are included:
The correct answer is: (3) A, B, C and D
Asymmetrical features of Indian federalism refer to special provisions made for certain regions or states based on their unique needs and circumstances. The following are included:
Which of the Constitutional provisions doesn’t/don’t come within the legislative jurisdiction of the Legislature of a State?
A. Matters relating to clause 3 of article 16
B. Matters relating to article 32
C. Matters relating to article 33 DE
D. Matters relating to article 34
E. Matters relating to clause 4 of article 16
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is: (1) Only A, B, C, and D
The following provisions do not come under the legislative jurisdiction of the State Legislature:
Clause 4 of Article 16, however, pertains to reservations for backward classes in public employment, which can be implemented by both Parliament and State Legislatures. Hence, it is not excluded from State Legislature jurisdiction.
The correct answer is: (1) Only A, B, C, and D
The following provisions do not come under the legislative jurisdiction of the State Legislature:
Clause 4 of Article 16, however, pertains to reservations for backward classes in public employment, which can be implemented by both Parliament and State Legislatures. Hence, it is not excluded from State Legislature jurisdiction.
Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People is provided under which article of the Constitution?
Correct Answer: (3) Article 330
Article 330 provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha.
Correct Answer: (3) Article 330
Article 330 provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the following articles were not inserted by the Forty-second Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
A. Article 21A
B. Article 31A
C. Article 39A
D. Article 43A
E. Article 48A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is: (1) Only A and B
The correct answer is: (1) Only A and B
Who in the Constituent Assembly, said that ‘the Doctrine of Independence was not to be raised to the level of a dogma so as to enable the judiciary to function as a kind of Super Legislature or Super Executive’?
The correct answer is: (4) A.K. Ayyar
A.K. Ayyar expressed the view that the Doctrine of Independence should not be elevated to the level of a dogma, which would allow the judiciary to function as a “Super Legislature” or “Super Executive,” as discussed during the debates in the Constituent Assembly.
The correct answer is: (4) A.K. Ayyar
A.K. Ayyar expressed the view that the Doctrine of Independence should not be elevated to the level of a dogma, which would allow the judiciary to function as a “Super Legislature” or “Super Executive,” as discussed during the debates in the Constituent Assembly.
The Parliament of India consists of:
A. The House of the People
B. The Council of States
C. The President
D. The Prime Minister
E. The Speaker
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answer is: (1) Only A, B, and C
Explanation: As per Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of:
The Prime Minister (D) and Speaker (E) are not part of the Parliament but hold key positions within it.
The correct answer is: (1) Only A, B, and C
Explanation: As per Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of:
The Prime Minister (D) and Speaker (E) are not part of the Parliament but hold key positions within it.
Which of the following is/are correct?
A. Article 143 provides for the power of the President to consult the Supreme Court.
B. The opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding.
C. The Supreme Court is not bound to give an opinion on the subject so referred.
D. The Supreme Court may respectfully decline to answer the reference if it finds it improper, inadvisable, or undesirable.
E. The Supreme Court is bound to give an opinion.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, C, D
Explanation:
Conclusion:
Since statements A, B, C, and D are correct, the most appropriate answer is:
✅ (4) Only A, B, C, D
Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, C, D
Explanation:
Conclusion:
Since statements A, B, C, and D are correct, the most appropriate answer is:
✅ (4) Only A, B, C, D
Parliament may by law:
A. extend the jurisdiction of a High Court
B. establish a common High Court for two or more States
C. constitute a High Court for a Union Territory
D. establish administrative tribunal for each State
E appoint judges of the High Courts
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (1) Only A, B, C, and D
Explanation:
Conclusion:
Since statements A, B, C, and D are correct, the most appropriate answer is:
✅ (1) Only A, B, C, and D
Correct Answer: (1) Only A, B, C, and D
Explanation:
Conclusion:
Since statements A, B, C, and D are correct, the most appropriate answer is:
✅ (1) Only A, B, C, and D
Which Constitutional Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
Correct Answer: (2) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
Explanation:
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the minimum voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.
This amendment aimed to increase political participation among youth and strengthen democracy in India.
Correct Answer: (2) 61st Amendment Act, 1988
Explanation:
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 reduced the minimum voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.
This amendment aimed to increase political participation among youth and strengthen democracy in India.
The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 added three words to the Preamble of the Constitution of India.
A. Socialist
B. Secular
C. Integrity
D. Unity
E. Federal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (1) Only A, B, and C
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added three words to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
The words “Unity” (D) and “Federal” (E) were not added by the 42nd Amendment.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅ (1) Only A, B, and C
Correct Answer: (1) Only A, B, and C
Explanation: The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added three words to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
The words “Unity” (D) and “Federal” (E) were not added by the 42nd Amendment.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅ (1) Only A, B, and C
Which was the first reported case of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) seeking relief for the under trial prisoners in jails?
Correct Answer: (2) Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar, 1979
Explanation: The case Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) was the first reported Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India seeking relief for undertrial prisoners.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅ (2) Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar, 1979
Correct Answer: (2) Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar, 1979
Explanation: The case Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar (1979) was the first reported Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India seeking relief for undertrial prisoners.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅ (2) Hussainara Khatoon Vs State of Bihar, 1979
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Power of judicial review is considered as part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
Reason R: The Supreme Court is endowed with the power of judicial review to ensure judicial independence and protection of rights.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Conclusion:
Since both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A, the most appropriate answer is:
✅ (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Conclusion:
Since both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A, the most appropriate answer is:
✅ (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The powers within the Supervisory Jurisdiction of the High Courts are both administrative and judicial in nature.
Reason R: Article 227(1) gives the High Courts power of Superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their territorial and constitutional jurisdiction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Conclusion:
Since both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A, the most appropriate answer is:
✅ (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Conclusion:
Since both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains A, the most appropriate answer is:
✅ (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Which Fundamental Rights are available to all persons?
A. Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
B. Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21)
C. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)
D. Freedom of religion (Article 25-28)
E. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste or place of birth (Article 15)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, C, and D
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights available to all persons (citizens & non-citizens):
✅ Article 20 – Protection against conviction for offenses.
✅ Article 21 – Right to life and personal liberty.
✅ Article 22 – Protection against arbitrary arrest and detention.
✅ Articles 25-28 – Freedom of religion.
Article 15 (prohibition of discrimination) applies only to citizens, so it is excluded.
Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, C, and D
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights available to all persons (citizens & non-citizens):
✅ Article 20 – Protection against conviction for offenses.
✅ Article 21 – Right to life and personal liberty.
✅ Article 22 – Protection against arbitrary arrest and detention.
✅ Articles 25-28 – Freedom of religion.
Article 15 (prohibition of discrimination) applies only to citizens, so it is excluded.
Which Constitutional Amendment ended the Parts A, B and C categories of States and implemented the States Reorganisation Scheme?
Correct Answer: (4) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
Explanation: The Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 reorganized the states of India and ended the classification of states into Parts A, B, and C. It implemented the States Reorganisation Scheme, which reorganized states based on linguistic and administrative considerations. This amendment led to the creation of new states and union territories and abolished the old categories of states.
Correct Answer: (4) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
Explanation: The Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 reorganized the states of India and ended the classification of states into Parts A, B, and C. It implemented the States Reorganisation Scheme, which reorganized states based on linguistic and administrative considerations. This amendment led to the creation of new states and union territories and abolished the old categories of states.
Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the privy purses and privileges of former rulers of Princely States?
Correct Answer: (3) The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
Explanation: The 26th Amendment Act of 1971 abolished the privy purses (the payments made to former rulers of princely states) and their privileges. This amendment effectively ended the special privileges and rights enjoyed by the former rulers of princely states after India’s independence.
Correct Answer: (3) The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) Act, 1971
Explanation: The 26th Amendment Act of 1971 abolished the privy purses (the payments made to former rulers of princely states) and their privileges. This amendment effectively ended the special privileges and rights enjoyed by the former rulers of princely states after India’s independence.
Which powers and responsibilities are not endowed by the Constitution to the Panchayats?
Correct Answer: (4) Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries
Explanation: The Constitution assigns specific powers and responsibilities to the Panchayats under the Eleventh Schedule (Articles 243G and 243W). These include:
However, (4) Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries is not included in the powers assigned to Panchayats. These are typically handled by municipalities or state authorities, making option (4) the correct answer.
Correct Answer: (4) Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries
Explanation: The Constitution assigns specific powers and responsibilities to the Panchayats under the Eleventh Schedule (Articles 243G and 243W). These include:
However, (4) Regulation of slaughter houses and tanneries is not included in the powers assigned to Panchayats. These are typically handled by municipalities or state authorities, making option (4) the correct answer.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Reason R: The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
However, R does not explain A because the pleasure of the President (Article 75) pertains to the power of the President to dismiss ministers, while R talks about the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha.
Conclusion:
Since both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A, the correct answer is:
✅ (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
However, R does not explain A because the pleasure of the President (Article 75) pertains to the power of the President to dismiss ministers, while R talks about the collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha.
Conclusion:
Since both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A, the correct answer is:
✅ (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Which of the following is incorrect about a Money Bill?
Correct Answer: (4) Both the Houses of the Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill.
Explanation:
Conclusion: The incorrect statement is (4) because the Rajya Sabha does not have equal powers with the Lok Sabha regarding a Money Bill.
Correct Answer: (4) Both the Houses of the Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill.
Explanation:
Conclusion: The incorrect statement is (4) because the Rajya Sabha does not have equal powers with the Lok Sabha regarding a Money Bill.
Who explains party systems in India in terms of democratisation and decay?
Correct Answer: (3) James Manor
Explanation:
James Manor explained party systems in India in terms of democratisation and decay. He discussed how India’s party system evolved, with a focus on how the initial stages of democratisation gave way to a decay of political structures over time. Manor analyzed the role of political parties in this transformation, highlighting both the successes and challenges of India’s democracy.
Correct Answer: (3) James Manor
Explanation:
James Manor explained party systems in India in terms of democratisation and decay. He discussed how India’s party system evolved, with a focus on how the initial stages of democratisation gave way to a decay of political structures over time. Manor analyzed the role of political parties in this transformation, highlighting both the successes and challenges of India’s democracy.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Some nations lack states
B. Some states lack national identity
C. Some nations occupy more than one state
D. Some states contain more than one nation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, C, and D
Explanation:
Each of the given statements is correct:
✅ (A) Some nations lack states – True. Examples include the Kurds and Palestinians, who identify as nations but do not have independent states.
✅ (B) Some states lack national identity – True. Some states, especially those with artificially drawn borders, struggle to develop a unified national identity (e.g., Iraq, Afghanistan).
✅ (C) Some nations occupy more than one state – True. Some nations exist across multiple states, such as Koreans (North & South Korea) and Somalis (Somalia, Ethiopia, Djibouti, Kenya).
✅ (D) Some states contain more than one nation – True. Multinational states like India, Canada, and the UK contain multiple national identities.
Conclusion: Since all four statements are correct, the correct answer is:
✅ (4) Only A, B, C, and D
Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, C, and D
Explanation:
Each of the given statements is correct:
✅ (A) Some nations lack states – True. Examples include the Kurds and Palestinians, who identify as nations but do not have independent states.
✅ (B) Some states lack national identity – True. Some states, especially those with artificially drawn borders, struggle to develop a unified national identity (e.g., Iraq, Afghanistan).
✅ (C) Some nations occupy more than one state – True. Some nations exist across multiple states, such as Koreans (North & South Korea) and Somalis (Somalia, Ethiopia, Djibouti, Kenya).
✅ (D) Some states contain more than one nation – True. Multinational states like India, Canada, and the UK contain multiple national identities.
Conclusion: Since all four statements are correct, the correct answer is:
✅ (4) Only A, B, C, and D
Who, amongst the following political philosophers can be associated with the idea of
‘Luck egalitarianism’?
Correct Answer: (4) Ronald Dworkin
Explanation:
Luck egalitarianism is a theory of distributive justice that argues inequalities should be addressed only when they arise due to uncontrollable circumstances (brute luck) rather than personal choices.
Conclusion:
✅ (4) Ronald Dworkin is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: (4) Ronald Dworkin
Explanation:
Luck egalitarianism is a theory of distributive justice that argues inequalities should be addressed only when they arise due to uncontrollable circumstances (brute luck) rather than personal choices.
Conclusion:
✅ (4) Ronald Dworkin is the correct answer.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Problems of global environmental change pose serious challenges to democratic political systems, as they currently exist.
Reason R: We need a thicker conception of citizenship, like environmental citizenship that obligates citizens to inculcate environmentally sensitive behaviour.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Conclusion: Since both A and R are correct, but R does not fully explain A, the correct answer is:
✅ (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Correct Answer: (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Conclusion: Since both A and R are correct, but R does not fully explain A, the correct answer is:
✅ (2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
The author of ‘Essay on Toleration’ is
Correct Answer: (1) John Locke
Explanation:
John Locke wrote “An Essay on Toleration” (1667), where he argued for religious tolerance and the separation of church and state. His later work, “A Letter Concerning Toleration” (1689), further developed these ideas, emphasizing that the state should not interfere in individuals’ religious beliefs.
Conclusion: ✅ (1) John Locke is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: (1) John Locke
Explanation:
John Locke wrote “An Essay on Toleration” (1667), where he argued for religious tolerance and the separation of church and state. His later work, “A Letter Concerning Toleration” (1689), further developed these ideas, emphasizing that the state should not interfere in individuals’ religious beliefs.
Conclusion: ✅ (1) John Locke is the correct answer.
Who among the following theorists is known for his work on ‘The theory of resources equality’?
Correct Answer: (2) Ronald Dworkin
Explanation: Ronald Dworkin is known for his “Theory of Resource Equality”, where he argues that justice requires distributing resources fairly, rather than focusing solely on welfare or utility. His approach is a form of luck egalitarianism, aiming to neutralize brute luck while allowing personal responsibility for choices.
Conclusion: ✅ (2) Ronald Dworkin is the correct answer.
Correct Answer: (2) Ronald Dworkin
Explanation: Ronald Dworkin is known for his “Theory of Resource Equality”, where he argues that justice requires distributing resources fairly, rather than focusing solely on welfare or utility. His approach is a form of luck egalitarianism, aiming to neutralize brute luck while allowing personal responsibility for choices.
Conclusion: ✅ (2) Ronald Dworkin is the correct answer.
Who described ‘Democracy as the tyranny of the majority’?
Correct Answer: (1) Alexis de Tocqueville
Explanation: Tocqueville, in “Democracy in America”, warned that democracy could lead to the tyranny of the majority, where majority rule suppresses minority rights.
✅ (1) Alexis de Tocqueville
Correct Answer: (1) Alexis de Tocqueville
Explanation: Tocqueville, in “Democracy in America”, warned that democracy could lead to the tyranny of the majority, where majority rule suppresses minority rights.
✅ (1) Alexis de Tocqueville
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Thin multiculturalism views some cultural differences as occurring between liberals and non-liberals.
Statement II: Thick multiculturalism views all cultural differences as disagreements between groups that already agree on liberal values.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation:
Conclusion:
✅ (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Correct Answer: (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation:
Conclusion:
✅ (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Match List-I with List-II
List- I | List- II |
---|---|
(A) Simone de Beauvoir | I) The Female Eunuch |
(B) Betty Friedan | II) Justice, Gender and the Family |
(C) Germaine Greer | III) The Feminine Mystique |
(D) S. Moller Okin | IV) The Second Sex |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Matching Explanation:
✅ Correct match: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Matching Explanation:
✅ Correct match: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Given below are two statements:
Statement 1: Liberal feminists argue for laws that give women formal equality of opportunity and freedom from discrimination.
Statement II: For radical feminists, the prevalence of violence against women is part and parcel of sex-inequality.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation:
✅ Statement I is correct: Liberal feminists advocate for legal reforms to ensure formal equality and eliminate gender-based discrimination, focusing on equal rights in education, work, and politics.
✅ Statement II is correct: Radical feminists argue that violence against women (such as domestic violence, sexual harassment, and assault) is a systemic issue reinforcing patriarchy and maintaining sex-based oppression.
Conclusion:
✅ (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation:
✅ Statement I is correct: Liberal feminists advocate for legal reforms to ensure formal equality and eliminate gender-based discrimination, focusing on equal rights in education, work, and politics.
✅ Statement II is correct: Radical feminists argue that violence against women (such as domestic violence, sexual harassment, and assault) is a systemic issue reinforcing patriarchy and maintaining sex-based oppression.
Conclusion:
✅ (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Which of the following is/are correct explanation of Ronald Dworkin’s idea of ‘Rights as Trumps’?
A. Norms of the society take precedence over basic individual rights.
B. Interests of the whole community can trump individual rights.
C. Basic rights of individuals take moral and legal precedence over other norms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (3) Only C
Explanation:
✅ Only C is correct: Ronald Dworkin’s idea of “Rights as Trumps” asserts that basic individual rights take moral and legal precedence over other societal norms and collective interests. Rights protect individuals from majoritarian rule and government overreach.
❌ A is incorrect: Dworkin argues that individual rights override societal norms, not the other way around.
❌ B is incorrect: According to Dworkin, individual rights cannot be sacrificed for the interests of the whole community.
Conclusion:
✅ (3) Only C is correct.
Correct Answer: (3) Only C
Explanation:
✅ Only C is correct: Ronald Dworkin’s idea of “Rights as Trumps” asserts that basic individual rights take moral and legal precedence over other societal norms and collective interests. Rights protect individuals from majoritarian rule and government overreach.
❌ A is incorrect: Dworkin argues that individual rights override societal norms, not the other way around.
❌ B is incorrect: According to Dworkin, individual rights cannot be sacrificed for the interests of the whole community.
Conclusion:
✅ (3) Only C is correct.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Jeremy Bentham, the founder of utilitarianism, ridiculed natural rights as a pernicious fiction.
Statement II: Human rights are believed to have been derived from the idea of natural law.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation:
✅ Statement I is correct: Jeremy Bentham, the founder of utilitarianism, famously dismissed natural rights as “nonsense upon stilts.” He argued that rights are created by laws and not inherent in human nature.
✅ Statement II is correct: The concept of human rights has its roots in the natural law tradition, which asserts that certain rights are inherent to human beings by virtue of their existence, independent of government or laws.
Conclusion:
✅ (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
Correct Answer: (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation:
✅ Statement I is correct: Jeremy Bentham, the founder of utilitarianism, famously dismissed natural rights as “nonsense upon stilts.” He argued that rights are created by laws and not inherent in human nature.
✅ Statement II is correct: The concept of human rights has its roots in the natural law tradition, which asserts that certain rights are inherent to human beings by virtue of their existence, independent of government or laws.
Conclusion:
✅ (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
“If your aim is liberty in democracy, then you must teach people the art of being free and of governing themselves.” Who gave this statement?
Correct Answer: (2) Aldous Huxley
Correct Answer: (2) Aldous Huxley
Which of the following constitutes the core principles of ‘Utilitarianism’?
A. Concept of utility
B. Greatest good of the greatest number
C. Laissez-Faire
D. Maximum happiness of maximum number of people
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, and D
Explanation:
✅ A. Concept of utility – Utilitarianism is based on the principle of utility, which assesses actions based on their ability to maximize pleasure and minimize pain.
✅ B. Greatest good of the greatest number – A central utilitarian idea, first formulated by Jeremy Bentham and later refined by John Stuart Mill.
✅ D. Maximum happiness of maximum number of people – Another way of expressing the core utilitarian principle, focusing on overall well-being.
❌ C. Laissez-Faire – Not a core principle of utilitarianism. While some classical utilitarians supported free markets, utilitarianism itself does not inherently advocate laissez-faire economics; it supports policies that maximize overall happiness, which can include government intervention.
Conclusion:
✅ (4) Only A, B, and D.
Correct Answer: (4) Only A, B, and D
Explanation:
✅ A. Concept of utility – Utilitarianism is based on the principle of utility, which assesses actions based on their ability to maximize pleasure and minimize pain.
✅ B. Greatest good of the greatest number – A central utilitarian idea, first formulated by Jeremy Bentham and later refined by John Stuart Mill.
✅ D. Maximum happiness of maximum number of people – Another way of expressing the core utilitarian principle, focusing on overall well-being.
❌ C. Laissez-Faire – Not a core principle of utilitarianism. While some classical utilitarians supported free markets, utilitarianism itself does not inherently advocate laissez-faire economics; it supports policies that maximize overall happiness, which can include government intervention.
Conclusion:
✅ (4) Only A, B, and D.
Who among the following defined “Citizenship as full and equal membership in Political Community”?
Correct Answer: (2) T.H. Marshall
Explanation: T.H. Marshall, in his seminal work Citizenship and Social Class (1950), defined citizenship as full and equal membership in a political community. He categorized citizenship into three parts:
Marshall’s theory highlights the evolution of citizenship from basic legal rights to broader social welfare rights.
Correct Answer: (2) T.H. Marshall
Explanation: T.H. Marshall, in his seminal work Citizenship and Social Class (1950), defined citizenship as full and equal membership in a political community. He categorized citizenship into three parts:
Marshall’s theory highlights the evolution of citizenship from basic legal rights to broader social welfare rights.
Who among the following advocates the ‘Entitlement theory of Justice’?
Correct Answer: (3) Robert Nozick
Robert Nozick’s “Entitlement Theory of Justice”, presented in Anarchy, State, and Utopia (1974), argues that justice is based on just acquisition, just transfer, and rectification of injustice. It supports individual rights and a minimal state, rejecting redistributive justice.
Correct Answer: (3) Robert Nozick
Robert Nozick’s “Entitlement Theory of Justice”, presented in Anarchy, State, and Utopia (1974), argues that justice is based on just acquisition, just transfer, and rectification of injustice. It supports individual rights and a minimal state, rejecting redistributive justice.
John Rawls is
Correct Answer: (2) A Social Contractarian
John Rawls is a Social Contractarian. In his influential work A Theory of Justice (1971), he proposes the idea of justice as fairness, rooted in the social contract tradition. Rawls argues that principles of justice should be chosen by rational individuals in an original position behind a “veil of ignorance,” where they don’t know their social status, abilities, or personal characteristics. This framework emphasizes fairness and equality as the foundation for a just society.
Correct Answer: (2) A Social Contractarian
John Rawls is a Social Contractarian. In his influential work A Theory of Justice (1971), he proposes the idea of justice as fairness, rooted in the social contract tradition. Rawls argues that principles of justice should be chosen by rational individuals in an original position behind a “veil of ignorance,” where they don’t know their social status, abilities, or personal characteristics. This framework emphasizes fairness and equality as the foundation for a just society.
The word ‘ideology’ was coined by
Correct Answer: (1) de Tracy
The term ‘ideology’ was coined by François-Marie Charles Fourier de Tracy, a French philosopher, in the late 18th century. He used it to refer to the study of ideas and their origins. Over time, the term evolved to describe a system of beliefs or a framework for understanding social and political ideas.
Correct Answer: (1) de Tracy
The term ‘ideology’ was coined by François-Marie Charles Fourier de Tracy, a French philosopher, in the late 18th century. He used it to refer to the study of ideas and their origins. Over time, the term evolved to describe a system of beliefs or a framework for understanding social and political ideas.
The author of ‘Nicomachean Ethics’ is
Correct Answer: (2) Aristotle
The author of Nicomachean Ethics is Aristotle. It is one of his most important works, where he explores the nature of virtue, the concept of happiness (eudaimonia), and the path to achieving a good life through moral and intellectual virtues.
Correct Answer: (2) Aristotle
The author of Nicomachean Ethics is Aristotle. It is one of his most important works, where he explores the nature of virtue, the concept of happiness (eudaimonia), and the path to achieving a good life through moral and intellectual virtues.
Who among the following used the concept of ‘Oceanic Circle’?
Correct Answer: (3) Mahatma Gandhi
Mahatma Gandhi used the concept of the ‘Oceanic Circle’ to describe his vision of a harmonious society. He believed in the interconnectedness of all individuals, likening it to an ocean where each drop is significant yet part of a larger whole. This idea reflected his belief in non-violence, unity, and the collective good.
Correct Answer: (3) Mahatma Gandhi
Mahatma Gandhi used the concept of the ‘Oceanic Circle’ to describe his vision of a harmonious society. He believed in the interconnectedness of all individuals, likening it to an ocean where each drop is significant yet part of a larger whole. This idea reflected his belief in non-violence, unity, and the collective good.
The work ‘Who were the Shudras’ is associated with
Correct Answer: (2) Ambedkar
The work ‘Who were the Shudras’ is associated with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. In this book, Ambedkar critically examines the origins of the Shudra caste and their social status in ancient Indian society, challenging traditional views and emphasizing the historical oppression of Shudras within the caste system.
Correct Answer: (2) Ambedkar
The work ‘Who were the Shudras’ is associated with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. In this book, Ambedkar critically examines the origins of the Shudra caste and their social status in ancient Indian society, challenging traditional views and emphasizing the historical oppression of Shudras within the caste system.
The term ‘Original Position’ is associated with
Correct Answer: (2) John Rawls
The term ‘Original Position’ is associated with John Rawls. It is a key concept in his theory of justice, where individuals, in a hypothetical scenario, choose principles of justice from behind a “veil of ignorance,” unaware of their own social status, abilities, or personal characteristics. This ensures fairness and impartiality in the selection of justice principles.
Correct Answer: (2) John Rawls
The term ‘Original Position’ is associated with John Rawls. It is a key concept in his theory of justice, where individuals, in a hypothetical scenario, choose principles of justice from behind a “veil of ignorance,” unaware of their own social status, abilities, or personal characteristics. This ensures fairness and impartiality in the selection of justice principles.
‘Leviathan’ was written by
Correct Answer: (2) Hobbes
‘Leviathan’ was written by Thomas Hobbes. Published in 1651, it is one of his most significant works, where he argues for a powerful, centralized authority to avoid the chaos and disorder of the state of nature. Hobbes believes that in the absence of a strong government, life would be “solitary, poor, nasty, brutish, and short.”
Correct Answer: (2) Hobbes
‘Leviathan’ was written by Thomas Hobbes. Published in 1651, it is one of his most significant works, where he argues for a powerful, centralized authority to avoid the chaos and disorder of the state of nature. Hobbes believes that in the absence of a strong government, life would be “solitary, poor, nasty, brutish, and short.”
Who among the following defined “Politics as the Authoritative Allocation of Values”?
Correct Answer: (2) David Easton
David Easton defined “Politics as the Authoritative Allocation of Values.” In his systems theory approach, Easton argued that politics is the process through which a society allocates resources and values, with authority determining the decisions that impact the collective.
Correct Answer: (2) David Easton
David Easton defined “Politics as the Authoritative Allocation of Values.” In his systems theory approach, Easton argued that politics is the process through which a society allocates resources and values, with authority determining the decisions that impact the collective.
Who among the following is considered as a ‘reluctant democrat’?
Correct Answer: (1) J.S. Mill
John Stuart Mill is considered a ‘reluctant democrat’. Although he advocated for democratic principles, he was cautious about full democracy, fearing the “tyranny of the majority.” Mill believed that certain measures, such as the protection of individual rights and the need for educated voters, were essential for a healthy democracy.
Correct Answer: (1) J.S. Mill
John Stuart Mill is considered a ‘reluctant democrat’. Although he advocated for democratic principles, he was cautious about full democracy, fearing the “tyranny of the majority.” Mill believed that certain measures, such as the protection of individual rights and the need for educated voters, were essential for a healthy democracy.
‘The Saptang Theory of State’ is associated with
Correct Answer: (1) Kautilya
The ‘Saptang Theory of State’ is associated with Kautilya, also known as Chanakya. In his work Arthashastra, Kautilya outlines the seven elements (or “limbs”) of a state, which are: the ruler, the ministers, the country, the fort, the treasury, the army, and the ally. These elements are essential for the functioning and stability of a state.
Correct Answer: (1) Kautilya
The ‘Saptang Theory of State’ is associated with Kautilya, also known as Chanakya. In his work Arthashastra, Kautilya outlines the seven elements (or “limbs”) of a state, which are: the ruler, the ministers, the country, the fort, the treasury, the army, and the ally. These elements are essential for the functioning and stability of a state.
“Hindutva: Who is a Hindu” was written by
Correct Answer: (1) Savarkar
“Hindutva: Who is a Hindu?” was written by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in 1923. In this book, Savarkar outlines his vision of Hindu nationalism, defining “Hindutva” as a cultural and political ideology centered on the idea that India is a Hindu nation, with Hindu identity rooted in both religion and culture.
Correct Answer: (1) Savarkar
“Hindutva: Who is a Hindu?” was written by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in 1923. In this book, Savarkar outlines his vision of Hindu nationalism, defining “Hindutva” as a cultural and political ideology centered on the idea that India is a Hindu nation, with Hindu identity rooted in both religion and culture.
The concept of ‘Complex Equality’ was given by
Correct Answer: (2) Michael Walzer
The concept of ‘Complex Equality’ was given by Michael Walzer in his book Spheres of Justice (1983). Walzer argues that different social goods (like wealth, education, and political power) should be distributed according to different principles, and no one should dominate all spheres of life. He believes in maintaining equality across various spheres to prevent any group from having undue influence or control over other aspects of life.
Correct Answer: (2) Michael Walzer
The concept of ‘Complex Equality’ was given by Michael Walzer in his book Spheres of Justice (1983). Walzer argues that different social goods (like wealth, education, and political power) should be distributed according to different principles, and no one should dominate all spheres of life. He believes in maintaining equality across various spheres to prevent any group from having undue influence or control over other aspects of life.
Isaiah Berlin is the author of
Correct Answer: (2) Four Essays on Liberty
Isaiah Berlin is the author of “Four Essays on Liberty” (1969), which includes his famous distinction between negative and positive liberty. This collection explores the nature of freedom and the different ways it can be understood, contributing significantly to political philosophy.
Correct Answer: (2) Four Essays on Liberty
Isaiah Berlin is the author of “Four Essays on Liberty” (1969), which includes his famous distinction between negative and positive liberty. This collection explores the nature of freedom and the different ways it can be understood, contributing significantly to political philosophy.
“Considerations on Representative Government” was authored by:
Correct Answer: (3) J.S. Mill
“Considerations on Representative Government” was authored by John Stuart Mill. In this work, Mill explores the principles of representative democracy, advocating for the extension of the franchise, the importance of political participation, and the role of education in a democratic society.
Correct Answer: (3) J.S. Mill
“Considerations on Representative Government” was authored by John Stuart Mill. In this work, Mill explores the principles of representative democracy, advocating for the extension of the franchise, the importance of political participation, and the role of education in a democratic society.
The United Nations is
Correct Answer: (2) An International Organisation
The United Nations is an International Organisation. It is a global intergovernmental organization established in 1945 to promote peace, security, human rights, and cooperation among its member states. The UN’s primary goals are to maintain international peace, promote sustainable development, and provide humanitarian aid.
Correct Answer: (2) An International Organisation
The United Nations is an International Organisation. It is a global intergovernmental organization established in 1945 to promote peace, security, human rights, and cooperation among its member states. The UN’s primary goals are to maintain international peace, promote sustainable development, and provide humanitarian aid.
Major wars between India and Pakistan took place in
Correct Answer: (1) 1947-48, 1965 and 1971
The major wars between India and Pakistan occurred in 1947-48, 1965, and 1971. The first war followed the partition of India and Pakistan in 1947, the second was over Kashmir in 1965, and the third was during the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971.
Correct Answer: (1) 1947-48, 1965 and 1971
The major wars between India and Pakistan occurred in 1947-48, 1965, and 1971. The first war followed the partition of India and Pakistan in 1947, the second was over Kashmir in 1965, and the third was during the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971.
Who among the following thinkers is known for Realism in International Relations ?
Correct Answer: (1) Hans J. Morgenthau
Hans J. Morgenthau is known for Realism in International Relations. His influential work Politics Among Nations (1948) laid the foundation for classical realism, emphasizing that international politics is governed by objective laws rooted in human nature, where states act in pursuit of national interest, primarily defined by power.
Correct Answer: (1) Hans J. Morgenthau
Hans J. Morgenthau is known for Realism in International Relations. His influential work Politics Among Nations (1948) laid the foundation for classical realism, emphasizing that international politics is governed by objective laws rooted in human nature, where states act in pursuit of national interest, primarily defined by power.
SAARC was founded in the year
Correct Answer: (2) 1985
SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) was founded in 1985. It is a regional intergovernmental organization in South Asia, aiming to promote economic and regional integration, peace, and cooperation among its member states.
Correct Answer: (2) 1985
SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) was founded in 1985. It is a regional intergovernmental organization in South Asia, aiming to promote economic and regional integration, peace, and cooperation among its member states.
Two superpowers during the Cold War were
Correct Answer: (3) USA and USSR
The two superpowers during the Cold War were the USA (United States of America) and the USSR (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics). The Cold War, lasting from the end of World War II until the early 1990s, was marked by political, military, and ideological rivalry between these two superpowers.
Correct Answer: (3) USA and USSR
The two superpowers during the Cold War were the USA (United States of America) and the USSR (Union of Soviet Socialist Republics). The Cold War, lasting from the end of World War II until the early 1990s, was marked by political, military, and ideological rivalry between these two superpowers.
Which of the following is not a key feature of India’s Act East policy?
Correct Answer: (3) To emerge as a regional superpower
India’s Act East policy primarily focuses on boosting economic and strategic security, developing strong relations with Indo-Pacific nations, and securing access to capital, technology, energy, and markets. However, emerging as a regional superpower is not specifically a key feature of this policy, although it aligns with broader national goals.
Correct Answer: (3) To emerge as a regional superpower
India’s Act East policy primarily focuses on boosting economic and strategic security, developing strong relations with Indo-Pacific nations, and securing access to capital, technology, energy, and markets. However, emerging as a regional superpower is not specifically a key feature of this policy, although it aligns with broader national goals.
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Treaty) | List- II (Year) |
---|---|
(A) Geneva Protocol | I) 1968 |
(B) Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty | II) 1925 |
(C) ABM Treaty | III) 1979 |
(D) SALT II Treaty | IV) 1972 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answer is: (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Here’s the matching:
The correct answer is: (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Here’s the matching:
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Name of Author/Thinker) | List- II (Name of Book) |
---|---|
(A) Machiavelli | I) Theory of International Politics |
(B) Thucydides | II) Politics Among Nations |
(C) Hans J. Morgenthau | III) The Prince |
(D) Kenneth Waltz | IV) The Peloponnesian War |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answer is: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Here’s the matching:
The correct answer is: (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Here’s the matching:
Arrange the following Cold War events chronologically from the earliest to the latest.
A. Cuban Missile Crisis
B. Suez Crisis
C. Soviet intervention in Afghanistan
D. Vietnam War
E. Korean War
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is: (2) E, B, A, D, C
Here’s the correct chronological order:
The correct answer is: (2) E, B, A, D, C
Here’s the correct chronological order:
Which of the following statements about NAM are correct?
A. NAM represented the concerns, interests and aspirations of the developing countries.
B. It emerged in the context of a wave of decolonization after the Second World War.
C. India was one of the founding members of NAM.
D. The relevance of NAM after the end of Cold War is being debated.
E. NAM supported the policy of Imperialism.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is: (2) Only A, B, C and D
Here’s why:
Thus, only A, B, C, and D are correct.
The correct answer is: (2) Only A, B, C and D
Here’s why:
Thus, only A, B, C, and D are correct.
Who is the author of the book “Engaging India: Diplomacy, Democracy and the Bomb”?
Correct Answer: (2) Strobe Talbott
The author of the book “Engaging India: Diplomacy, Democracy and the Bomb” is Strobe Talbott, who served as the U.S. Deputy Secretary of State. The book discusses U.S.-India relations, particularly in the context of India’s nuclear tests and the diplomatic engagement between the two countries.
Correct Answer: (2) Strobe Talbott
The author of the book “Engaging India: Diplomacy, Democracy and the Bomb” is Strobe Talbott, who served as the U.S. Deputy Secretary of State. The book discusses U.S.-India relations, particularly in the context of India’s nuclear tests and the diplomatic engagement between the two countries.
The US-Indian Nuclear Cooperation Approval and Nonproliferation Enhancement Act
was signed in the year
The US-Indian Nuclear Cooperation Approval and Nonproliferation Enhancement Act was signed in 2008.
This Act marked the formal approval of the nuclear deal between the US and India, allowing India to engage in civil nuclear trade with other countries, despite not being a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). Thank you for pointing that out!
The US-Indian Nuclear Cooperation Approval and Nonproliferation Enhancement Act was signed in 2008.
This Act marked the formal approval of the nuclear deal between the US and India, allowing India to engage in civil nuclear trade with other countries, despite not being a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT). Thank you for pointing that out!
Woodrow Wilson’s 14 points stressed the importance of
Correct Answer: (4) Collective Security in International Relations
Woodrow Wilson’s 14 Points stressed the importance of collective security as a way to ensure lasting peace. This was exemplified in his proposal for the creation of the League of Nations, which aimed to prevent future wars through international cooperation and mutual security arrangements among nations.
Correct Answer: (4) Collective Security in International Relations
Woodrow Wilson’s 14 Points stressed the importance of collective security as a way to ensure lasting peace. This was exemplified in his proposal for the creation of the League of Nations, which aimed to prevent future wars through international cooperation and mutual security arrangements among nations.
The purpose of the US Marshall Plan was
Correct Answer: (4) All of the above
The US Marshall Plan (officially the European Recovery Program) was aimed at:
Thus, all of the above were objectives of the Marshall Plan.
Correct Answer: (4) All of the above
The US Marshall Plan (officially the European Recovery Program) was aimed at:
Thus, all of the above were objectives of the Marshall Plan.
Which one of the following is not a part of the UN Millenium Development Goals (MDGs)?
Correct Answer: (4) Promote South-South Cooperation
Promote South-South Cooperation is not a part of the UN Millennium Development Goals (MDGs). The MDGs, which were set by the United Nations in 2000, focused on addressing global challenges such as poverty, education, gender equality, and health. While South-South cooperation has been emphasized in later development agendas, it was not a specific goal in the MDGs.
Correct Answer: (4) Promote South-South Cooperation
Promote South-South Cooperation is not a part of the UN Millennium Development Goals (MDGs). The MDGs, which were set by the United Nations in 2000, focused on addressing global challenges such as poverty, education, gender equality, and health. While South-South cooperation has been emphasized in later development agendas, it was not a specific goal in the MDGs.
Which one of the following is not a type of Public Policy in Theodore Lowi’s classification?
Correct Answer: (4) Welfare Policy
In Theodore Lowi’s classification of public policy, the types of policies are:
Welfare Policy is not a category in Lowi’s classification. While welfare policies might fall under redistributive policies (depending on the context), they are not specifically named as a separate category in Lowi’s framework.
Correct Answer: (4) Welfare Policy
In Theodore Lowi’s classification of public policy, the types of policies are:
Welfare Policy is not a category in Lowi’s classification. While welfare policies might fall under redistributive policies (depending on the context), they are not specifically named as a separate category in Lowi’s framework.
Which of the following is/are correct about the Hawthorne Experiments?
A. It was a pioneering study of how individuals behave in organisations.
B. It was carried out at the Hawthorne Works of Western Electric company, UK.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (1) Only A
The Hawthorne Experiments were a pioneering study of how individuals behave in organizations, particularly focusing on how various factors like lighting, rest periods, and social dynamics affected worker productivity.
However, Option B is incorrect because the experiments were carried out at the Hawthorne Works of the Western Electric Company in Chicago, USA, not in the UK.
Correct Answer: (1) Only A
The Hawthorne Experiments were a pioneering study of how individuals behave in organizations, particularly focusing on how various factors like lighting, rest periods, and social dynamics affected worker productivity.
However, Option B is incorrect because the experiments were carried out at the Hawthorne Works of the Western Electric Company in Chicago, USA, not in the UK.
The book The Principles of Scientific Management’ was authored by
Correct Answer: (1) F.W. Taylor
The book “The Principles of Scientific Management” was authored by Frederick Winslow Taylor. Published in 1911, it laid the foundation for scientific management, focusing on improving productivity through systematic study of tasks and applying scientific methods to management practices.
Correct Answer: (1) F.W. Taylor
The book “The Principles of Scientific Management” was authored by Frederick Winslow Taylor. Published in 1911, it laid the foundation for scientific management, focusing on improving productivity through systematic study of tasks and applying scientific methods to management practices.
Who is associated with the concept of ‘Bounded Rationality’?
Correct Answer: (2) Herbert Simon
The concept of ‘Bounded Rationality’ is associated with Herbert Simon. He proposed that individuals are limited in their decision-making abilities due to constraints like limited information, time, and cognitive capacity, which means they cannot always make fully rational decisions.
Correct Answer: (2) Herbert Simon
The concept of ‘Bounded Rationality’ is associated with Herbert Simon. He proposed that individuals are limited in their decision-making abilities due to constraints like limited information, time, and cognitive capacity, which means they cannot always make fully rational decisions.
Which of the following statements are true about ‘game theory’?
A. Game theory attempts to understand collective human activity as an outcome of interactive decisions.
B. It assumes decision-makers are involved in choices that are interdependent.
C. In game theory the ‘best’ depends upon what others do.
D. Game theory can be applied to decisions about war and peace, use of nuclear weapons and international diplomacy.
E. The conditions of game theory are always approximated in real life.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is: (1) Only A, B, C, D
Here’s why:
Thus, A, B, C, and D are true, but E is not.
The correct answer is: (1) Only A, B, C, D
Here’s why:
Thus, A, B, C, and D are true, but E is not.
Which of the following are true about a federal system ?
A. A federal system is based on a constitutional division of power.
B. In a federal system the power remains centralised.
C. A federal system is an innovation of modern times to deal with the issues of mass democracies.
D. In a federal system the regional units participate in the decision-making process at federal level electorally.
E. It is characterised by primacy of territorial representation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answer is: (2) Only A, C, D, E
Here’s why:
Thus, A, C, D, and E are correct, but B is not.
The correct answer is: (2) Only A, C, D, E
Here’s why:
Thus, A, C, D, and E are correct, but B is not.
Who coined the phrase ‘Catch-all’ party?
Correct Answer: (4) Otto Kirchheimer
The phrase ‘Catch-all’ party was coined by Otto Kirchheimer. He used it to describe political parties that seek to attract a broad spectrum of voters, often by downplaying specific ideological stances and focusing on policies that appeal to a wide range of the electorate.
Correct Answer: (4) Otto Kirchheimer
The phrase ‘Catch-all’ party was coined by Otto Kirchheimer. He used it to describe political parties that seek to attract a broad spectrum of voters, often by downplaying specific ideological stances and focusing on policies that appeal to a wide range of the electorate.
Which of the following are modern approaches to Comparative Politics?
The correct answer is: (4) All of the above
All the listed approaches are considered modern approaches to Comparative Politics:
Each of these approaches offers different perspectives and methods for studying political systems comparatively.
The correct answer is: (4) All of the above
All the listed approaches are considered modern approaches to Comparative Politics:
Each of these approaches offers different perspectives and methods for studying political systems comparatively.
Who among the following is not a classical elitist thinker?
Correct Answer: (1) J.A. Schumpeter
J.A. Schumpeter is not considered a classical elitist thinker. He is known for his contributions to the theory of democratic elitism and his concept of “competitive elitism”, but he is distinct from the classical elitist theorists like Vilfredo Pareto, R. Michels, and G. Mosca. These thinkers are considered classical elitists because they argued that political power is concentrated in the hands of a small, dominant elite, and that democracy is ultimately controlled by such elites.
Correct Answer: (1) J.A. Schumpeter
J.A. Schumpeter is not considered a classical elitist thinker. He is known for his contributions to the theory of democratic elitism and his concept of “competitive elitism”, but he is distinct from the classical elitist theorists like Vilfredo Pareto, R. Michels, and G. Mosca. These thinkers are considered classical elitists because they argued that political power is concentrated in the hands of a small, dominant elite, and that democracy is ultimately controlled by such elites.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. The origin of constitutionalism is traced in the Magna Carta.
B. State Duma is Russia’s national legislature.
C. Separation of powers is about distributing powers between the Centre and the States (Units).
D. Canada has parliamentary-federal polity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The correct answer is: (3) Only A, B and D
Here’s why:
Thus, the correct answer is A, B, and D.
The correct answer is: (3) Only A, B and D
Here’s why:
Thus, the correct answer is A, B, and D.
Functions of a Political Party include
A. Coordination within government and society
B. Contesting elections
C. Recruitment of cadre
D. Representation
E. Legislation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is: (1) Only A, B, C, D
Here’s why:
Thus, A, B, C, and D are correct, but E is not.
The correct answer is: (1) Only A, B, C, D
Here’s why:
Thus, A, B, C, and D are correct, but E is not.
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