Welcome to the CUET PG Political Science 2023 Mock Test!
This quiz is meticulously designed to assess your knowledge and understanding of key concepts and theories in political science, in line with the CUET PG syllabus.
Quiz Features:
Comprehensive Coverage: Questions cover a range of topics, including political theory, international relations, Indian politics, public administration, and more.
Interactive Format: Engage with diverse question types, including multiple-choice and true/false.
Instant Feedback: Receive immediate feedback after each question to enhance your learning experience.
Score Tracking: Monitor your performance and track your progress over time.
Leaderboard: Compete with other participants! Your scores will be displayed on a leaderboard, showcasing the top performers.
Quiz Structure:
Total Questions: 75 questions
Marks per Question: 4 marks
Total Marks: 300 marks
Time Limit: 90 minutes
How to Participate:
Click on the “Start Quiz” button below.
You will have 90 minutes to complete the quiz of 75 questions.
Answer each question to the best of your ability.
For each correct answer in the exam, you will be awarded 4 marks, and 1 mark will be deducted for each incorrect response. Therefore, approach each question strategically to maximize your score. However, in this quiz, there is no negative marking, so feel free to attempt all questions without hesitation!
Review your results at the end to see how well you performed and which topics you may need to study further.
Check the leaderboard to see your ranking compared to other participants!
Additional Instructions:
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Take your time to read each question carefully before answering.
Make sure to submit your answers before the timer runs out to have your score recorded.
Prepare yourself for success in the CUET PG examination. Good luck, and may your knowledge shine!
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Review
Question 1 of 75
1. Question
Category: CUET PG
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Directive Principles of State Policy)
List- II (Article)
(A) Organization of village panchayats
I) Article 49
(B) Workers participation in management
II) Article 40
(C) Protection of monuments
III) Article 50
(D) Separation of judiciary from executive
IV) Article 43A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. (A)-(II); (B)-(IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(III)
Here’s the detailed explanation:
(A) Organization of village panchayats → Article 40
(B) Workers’ participation in management → Article 43A
(C) Protection of monuments → Article 49
(D) Separation of judiciary from executive → Article 50
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. (A)-(II); (B)-(IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(III)
Here’s the detailed explanation:
(A) Organization of village panchayats → Article 40
(B) Workers’ participation in management → Article 43A
(C) Protection of monuments → Article 49
(D) Separation of judiciary from executive → Article 50
Question 2 of 75
2. Question
Category: CUET PG
Match List-I with List-II
List- I
List- II
(A) Wilson’s Fourteen Points, speech
I) Triumph of liberalism over all other ideologies
(B) Francis Fukuyama’s The End of (II History
II) Creation of regional parliaments
(C) David Held’s cosmopolitan model of democracy
III) A general association of nations must be formed
(D) G. John Ikenberry’s crisis of the liberal order
IV) The erosion sovereignty norms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. (A)-(III); (B)-(I); (C)-(II); (D)-(IV)
Here’s the explanation:
(A) Wilson’s Fourteen Points, speech → (III) A general association of nations must be formed
(Refers to the creation of the League of Nations as proposed in Wilson’s Fourteen Points.)
(B) Francis Fukuyama’s The End of History → (I) Triumph of liberalism over all other ideologies
(Fukuyama argues that liberal democracy is the ultimate form of governance.)
(C) David Held’s cosmopolitan model of democracy → (II) Creation of regional parliaments
(Held advocates for global governance with institutions like regional parliaments to address transnational issues.)
(D) G. John Ikenberry’s crisis of the liberal order → (IV) The erosion of sovereignty norms
(Ikenberry discusses the weakening of state sovereignty in the face of globalization and challenges to the liberal international order.)
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. (A)-(III); (B)-(I); (C)-(II); (D)-(IV)
Here’s the explanation:
(A) Wilson’s Fourteen Points, speech → (III) A general association of nations must be formed
(Refers to the creation of the League of Nations as proposed in Wilson’s Fourteen Points.)
(B) Francis Fukuyama’s The End of History → (I) Triumph of liberalism over all other ideologies
(Fukuyama argues that liberal democracy is the ultimate form of governance.)
(C) David Held’s cosmopolitan model of democracy → (II) Creation of regional parliaments
(Held advocates for global governance with institutions like regional parliaments to address transnational issues.)
(D) G. John Ikenberry’s crisis of the liberal order → (IV) The erosion of sovereignty norms
(Ikenberry discusses the weakening of state sovereignty in the face of globalization and challenges to the liberal international order.)
Question 3 of 75
3. Question
Category: CUET PG
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Electoral System)
List- II (Countries)
(A) Single member plurality
I) Ireland
(B) Single transferable vote
II) Germany
(C) Mixed member proportional
III) South Africa
(D) List system
IV) Canada
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. (A)-(IV); (B)-(I); (C)-(II); (D)-(III)
Explanation:
(A) Single member plurality → (IV) Canada
(Canada uses the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, which is a single-member plurality system.)
(B) Single transferable vote → (I) Ireland
(Ireland uses the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system for its elections.)
(C) Mixed member proportional → (II) Germany
(Germany uses a Mixed Member Proportional (MMP) system that combines proportional representation and single-member districts.)
(D) List system → (III) South Africa
(South Africa uses a proportional representation system based on party lists.)
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. (A)-(IV); (B)-(I); (C)-(II); (D)-(III)
Explanation:
(A) Single member plurality → (IV) Canada
(Canada uses the First Past the Post (FPTP) system, which is a single-member plurality system.)
(B) Single transferable vote → (I) Ireland
(Ireland uses the Single Transferable Vote (STV) system for its elections.)
(C) Mixed member proportional → (II) Germany
(Germany uses a Mixed Member Proportional (MMP) system that combines proportional representation and single-member districts.)
(D) List system → (III) South Africa
(South Africa uses a proportional representation system based on party lists.)
Question 4 of 75
4. Question
Category: CUET PG
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Writs)
List- II (Corresponding Meaning)
(A) Habeas Corpus
I) Enquiring into the legality of the claim to a public office
(B) Mandamus
II) Command
(C) Certiorari
III) To have a body
(D) Quo Warranto
IV) Quash the order or decision of the tribunal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. (A)-(III); (B)-(II); (C)-(IV); (D)-(I)
Explanation:
(A) Habeas Corpus → (III) To have a body
(Habeas Corpus is issued to produce a person before the court to ensure they are not being unlawfully detained.)
(B) Mandamus → (II) Command
(Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official or body to perform a duty they are legally obligated to perform.)
(C) Certiorari → (IV) Quash the order or decision of the tribunal
(Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to review and quash an illegal decision.)
(D) Quo Warranto → (I) Enquiring into the legality of the claim to a public office
(Quo Warranto is issued to challenge a person’s right to hold a public office.)
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. (A)-(III); (B)-(II); (C)-(IV); (D)-(I)
Explanation:
(A) Habeas Corpus → (III) To have a body
(Habeas Corpus is issued to produce a person before the court to ensure they are not being unlawfully detained.)
(B) Mandamus → (II) Command
(Mandamus is a command issued by the court to a public official or body to perform a duty they are legally obligated to perform.)
(C) Certiorari → (IV) Quash the order or decision of the tribunal
(Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to review and quash an illegal decision.)
(D) Quo Warranto → (I) Enquiring into the legality of the claim to a public office
(Quo Warranto is issued to challenge a person’s right to hold a public office.)
Question 5 of 75
5. Question
Category: CUET PG
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Philosophers)
List- II (Central Idea)
(A) Machiavelli
I) Self-preservation
(B) Hobbes
II) General will
(C) Locke
III) Seize absolute authority
(D) Rousseau
IV) Limited government
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. (A)-(III); (B)-(I); (C)-(IV); (D)-(II)
Explanation:
(A) Machiavelli → (III) Seize absolute authority
(Machiavelli emphasized the importance of power, pragmatism, and maintaining authority to govern effectively.)
(B) Hobbes → (I) Self-preservation
(Hobbes believed that self-preservation is the driving force of human behavior and that a strong sovereign authority is necessary to prevent chaos.)
(C) Locke → (IV) Limited government
(Locke advocated for limited government and protection of natural rights like life, liberty, and property.)
(D) Rousseau → (II) General will
(Rousseau introduced the concept of the “general will,” representing the collective interest of the people in a social contract.)
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. (A)-(III); (B)-(I); (C)-(IV); (D)-(II)
Explanation:
(A) Machiavelli → (III) Seize absolute authority
(Machiavelli emphasized the importance of power, pragmatism, and maintaining authority to govern effectively.)
(B) Hobbes → (I) Self-preservation
(Hobbes believed that self-preservation is the driving force of human behavior and that a strong sovereign authority is necessary to prevent chaos.)
(C) Locke → (IV) Limited government
(Locke advocated for limited government and protection of natural rights like life, liberty, and property.)
(D) Rousseau → (II) General will
(Rousseau introduced the concept of the “general will,” representing the collective interest of the people in a social contract.)
Question 6 of 75
6. Question
Category: CUET PG
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Political Thinkers)
List- II (Books)
(A) Mary Wollstonecraft
I) Sexual Politics
(B) Kate Millett
II) The Female Eunuch
(C) Germaine Greer
III) A Vindication of the Rights of Woman
(D) Judith Butler
IV) Gender Trouble
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. (A)-(III); (B)-(I); (C)-(II); (D)-(IV)
Explanation:
(A) Mary Wollstonecraft → (III) A Vindication of the Rights of Woman
(Mary Wollstonecraft’s foundational feminist work argued for women’s education and equality.)
(B) Kate Millett → (I) Sexual Politics
(Kate Millett’s Sexual Politics is a pioneering work in second-wave feminism, analyzing the intersection of gender and power.)
(C) Germaine Greer → (II) The Female Eunuch
(Germaine Greer critiques traditional female roles and advocates for women’s liberation in The Female Eunuch.)
(D) Judith Butler → (IV) Gender Trouble
(Judith Butler’s Gender Trouble introduced the concept of gender as performative and challenged traditional notions of gender identity.)
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. (A)-(III); (B)-(I); (C)-(II); (D)-(IV)
Explanation:
(A) Mary Wollstonecraft → (III) A Vindication of the Rights of Woman
(Mary Wollstonecraft’s foundational feminist work argued for women’s education and equality.)
(B) Kate Millett → (I) Sexual Politics
(Kate Millett’s Sexual Politics is a pioneering work in second-wave feminism, analyzing the intersection of gender and power.)
(C) Germaine Greer → (II) The Female Eunuch
(Germaine Greer critiques traditional female roles and advocates for women’s liberation in The Female Eunuch.)
(D) Judith Butler → (IV) Gender Trouble
(Judith Butler’s Gender Trouble introduced the concept of gender as performative and challenged traditional notions of gender identity.)
Question 7 of 75
7. Question
Category: CUET PG
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Theories of Nationalism)
List- II (Theorist)
(A) Primordialism
I) Ernest Gellner
(B) Ethno-symbolism
II) Adrian Hastings
(C) Perennialism
III) Anthony Smith
(D) Modernism
IV) Walker Connor
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 4. (A)-(IV); (B)-(III); (C)-(II); (D)-(I)
Explanation:
(A) Primordialism → (IV) Walker Connor
(Primordialism emphasizes deep-rooted ethnic and cultural ties, and Walker Connor is a prominent theorist in this field.)
(B) Ethno-symbolism → (III) Anthony Smith
(Ethno-symbolism, championed by Anthony Smith, focuses on the role of myths, memories, and symbols in shaping national identity.)
(C) Perennialism → (II) Adrian Hastings
(Perennialism, as discussed by Adrian Hastings, views nations as enduring entities, often linked to religion and history.)
(D) Modernism → (I) Ernest Gellner
(Modernism, advocated by Ernest Gellner, argues that nationalism is a product of modern industrial societies.)
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 4. (A)-(IV); (B)-(III); (C)-(II); (D)-(I)
Explanation:
(A) Primordialism → (IV) Walker Connor
(Primordialism emphasizes deep-rooted ethnic and cultural ties, and Walker Connor is a prominent theorist in this field.)
(B) Ethno-symbolism → (III) Anthony Smith
(Ethno-symbolism, championed by Anthony Smith, focuses on the role of myths, memories, and symbols in shaping national identity.)
(C) Perennialism → (II) Adrian Hastings
(Perennialism, as discussed by Adrian Hastings, views nations as enduring entities, often linked to religion and history.)
(D) Modernism → (I) Ernest Gellner
(Modernism, advocated by Ernest Gellner, argues that nationalism is a product of modern industrial societies.)
Question 8 of 75
8. Question
Category: CUET PG
On the question of State sovereignty
A. Issues of global concern cannot challenge external sovereignty of the State
B. Such issues cannot bring multilateral pressure on decision making of the States
C. Human rights movements affect the policy of internal security of the States
D. Human rights issues are also deployed by the States to influence each other’s decisions Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. C and D only
Explanation:
(C) Human rights movements affect the policy of internal security of the States
(This is correct because human rights movements often highlight abuses and pressurize states to reform policies, which can impact internal security strategies.)
(D) Human rights issues are also deployed by the States to influence each other’s decisions
(This is correct because states sometimes use human rights as a tool in diplomacy to apply pressure or justify interventions.)
Why not A and B?
(A) Issues of global concern cannot challenge external sovereignty of the State
(This is incorrect because global concerns like climate change, human rights, and international law often challenge state sovereignty.)
(B) Such issues cannot bring multilateral pressure on decision-making of the States
(This is incorrect because multilateral institutions and treaties frequently exert pressure on states regarding global concerns.)
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. C and D only
Explanation:
(C) Human rights movements affect the policy of internal security of the States
(This is correct because human rights movements often highlight abuses and pressurize states to reform policies, which can impact internal security strategies.)
(D) Human rights issues are also deployed by the States to influence each other’s decisions
(This is correct because states sometimes use human rights as a tool in diplomacy to apply pressure or justify interventions.)
Why not A and B?
(A) Issues of global concern cannot challenge external sovereignty of the State
(This is incorrect because global concerns like climate change, human rights, and international law often challenge state sovereignty.)
(B) Such issues cannot bring multilateral pressure on decision-making of the States
(This is incorrect because multilateral institutions and treaties frequently exert pressure on states regarding global concerns.)
Question 9 of 75
9. Question
Category: CUET PG
It has been found about the Election Commission of India
A. The end of emergency led to decline of the Election Commission of India
B. In the 1990s, the Commission faced regulatory activism
C. The assertiveness of the Election Commission was largely due to an alert media and strong opposition
D. Even, the Chief Election Commissioner, T. N. Seshan contributed to protecting the sanctity of democratic elections Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. B, C and D only
Explanation:
(A) The end of emergency led to decline of the Election Commission of India
(This is incorrect. The end of the Emergency in 1977 marked a revival of democratic institutions, including the Election Commission, rather than its decline.)
(B) In the 1990s, the Commission faced regulatory activism
(This is correct. The 1990s saw the Election Commission becoming more assertive, actively implementing reforms to ensure free and fair elections.)
(C) The assertiveness of the Election Commission was largely due to an alert media and strong opposition
(This is correct. Media and opposition parties played a significant role in supporting the Election Commission’s efforts to uphold electoral integrity.)
(D) Even, the Chief Election Commissioner, T. N. Seshan contributed to protecting the sanctity of democratic elections
(This is correct. T. N. Seshan is widely credited with transforming the Election Commission into a more powerful and independent institution by enforcing strict adherence to election laws and codes of conduct.)
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. B, C and D only
Explanation:
(A) The end of emergency led to decline of the Election Commission of India
(This is incorrect. The end of the Emergency in 1977 marked a revival of democratic institutions, including the Election Commission, rather than its decline.)
(B) In the 1990s, the Commission faced regulatory activism
(This is correct. The 1990s saw the Election Commission becoming more assertive, actively implementing reforms to ensure free and fair elections.)
(C) The assertiveness of the Election Commission was largely due to an alert media and strong opposition
(This is correct. Media and opposition parties played a significant role in supporting the Election Commission’s efforts to uphold electoral integrity.)
(D) Even, the Chief Election Commissioner, T. N. Seshan contributed to protecting the sanctity of democratic elections
(This is correct. T. N. Seshan is widely credited with transforming the Election Commission into a more powerful and independent institution by enforcing strict adherence to election laws and codes of conduct.)
Question 10 of 75
10. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following statements are true about the different approaches to the study of comparative politics?
A. Institutional analysis examines the functioning of and relationships between institutions in a given moment.
B. New institutionalism is a revival of institutionalism that looks at how institutions shape decisions and define interests.
C. The behavioural approach focuses on the study of constitutions, institutions and organizational charts.
D. Structuralism examines relationships among parts rather than the parts themselves.
E. The rational choice approach explains political action through statistical generalization rather than interest of the actors. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. A, B and D only
Explanation:
(A) Institutional analysis examines the functioning of and relationships between institutions in a given moment.
(True) Institutional analysis studies how institutions operate and interact in specific contexts.
(B) New institutionalism is a revival of institutionalism that looks at how institutions shape decisions and define interests.
(True) New institutionalism explores how institutions influence behavior, preferences, and decision-making processes, going beyond mere structural analysis.
(C) The behavioural approach focuses on the study of constitutions, institutions and organizational charts.
(False) The behavioral approach focuses on the behavior, attitudes, and actions of individuals and groups, not just institutions and structures.
(D) Structuralism examines relationships among parts rather than the parts themselves.
(True) Structuralism emphasizes the interconnections and relationships between various components within a system, rather than focusing on individual components.
(E) The rational choice approach explains political action through statistical generalization rather than interest of the actors.
(False) The rational choice approach explains political action by focusing on the interests, preferences, and calculations of individual actors, not statistical generalization.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. A, B and D only
Explanation:
(A) Institutional analysis examines the functioning of and relationships between institutions in a given moment.
(True) Institutional analysis studies how institutions operate and interact in specific contexts.
(B) New institutionalism is a revival of institutionalism that looks at how institutions shape decisions and define interests.
(True) New institutionalism explores how institutions influence behavior, preferences, and decision-making processes, going beyond mere structural analysis.
(C) The behavioural approach focuses on the study of constitutions, institutions and organizational charts.
(False) The behavioral approach focuses on the behavior, attitudes, and actions of individuals and groups, not just institutions and structures.
(D) Structuralism examines relationships among parts rather than the parts themselves.
(True) Structuralism emphasizes the interconnections and relationships between various components within a system, rather than focusing on individual components.
(E) The rational choice approach explains political action through statistical generalization rather than interest of the actors.
(False) The rational choice approach explains political action by focusing on the interests, preferences, and calculations of individual actors, not statistical generalization.
Question 11 of 75
11. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following statements are true about institutional liberalism in international relations theory?
A. Institutional liberals claim that international institutions help promote cooperation between States.
B. The extent of institutionalization can be measured by depth and scope.
C. A high level of institutionalization reduces the destabilizing effects of multipolar anarchy.
D. The role of institutions lies in strengthening international agreements.
E. Institutions however cannot make up for lack of trust between States. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. A, B, C and D only
Explanation:
(A) Institutional liberals claim that international institutions help promote cooperation between States.
(True) Institutional liberalism posits that international institutions facilitate cooperation by reducing uncertainty, providing information, and creating norms and rules for interaction.
(B) The extent of institutionalization can be measured by depth and scope.
(True) Institutionalization is assessed through its depth (the level of commitment to rules and norms) and scope (the range of issues addressed).
(C) A high level of institutionalization reduces the destabilizing effects of multipolar anarchy.
(True) Institutional liberals argue that strong institutions can mitigate the uncertainty and instability of a multipolar international system by fostering cooperation and predictable behavior.
(D) The role of institutions lies in strengthening international agreements.
(True) Institutions play a key role in monitoring compliance, enforcing rules, and ensuring the durability of international agreements.
(E) Institutions, however, cannot make up for lack of trust between States.
(False) Institutional liberals argue that institutions can help build trust by providing transparency, monitoring, and mechanisms for dispute resolution, even in situations where initial trust is lacking.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. A, B, C and D only
Explanation:
(A) Institutional liberals claim that international institutions help promote cooperation between States.
(True) Institutional liberalism posits that international institutions facilitate cooperation by reducing uncertainty, providing information, and creating norms and rules for interaction.
(B) The extent of institutionalization can be measured by depth and scope.
(True) Institutionalization is assessed through its depth (the level of commitment to rules and norms) and scope (the range of issues addressed).
(C) A high level of institutionalization reduces the destabilizing effects of multipolar anarchy.
(True) Institutional liberals argue that strong institutions can mitigate the uncertainty and instability of a multipolar international system by fostering cooperation and predictable behavior.
(D) The role of institutions lies in strengthening international agreements.
(True) Institutions play a key role in monitoring compliance, enforcing rules, and ensuring the durability of international agreements.
(E) Institutions, however, cannot make up for lack of trust between States.
(False) Institutional liberals argue that institutions can help build trust by providing transparency, monitoring, and mechanisms for dispute resolution, even in situations where initial trust is lacking.
Question 12 of 75
12. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following statements are true about legal equality?
A. Legal equality does not guarantee equality of treatment by the law.
B. Legal equality contradicts rule of law.
C. Legal equality is a prominent characteristic of civil society.
D. Legal equality does not abolish special privileges.
E. Legal equality cannot be the basis for contract based relations. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. A and C only
Explanation:
(A) Legal equality does not guarantee equality of treatment by the law.
(True) Legal equality means that all individuals are equal before the law. However, in practice, socio-economic factors, biases, and systemic inequalities can prevent equal treatment by the law.
(B) Legal equality contradicts rule of law.
(False) Legal equality is an essential component of the rule of law, as both emphasize that all individuals are subject to the same laws.
(C) Legal equality is a prominent characteristic of civil society.
(True) Legal equality is a defining feature of civil society, where all individuals are granted equal status and protection under the law.
(D) Legal equality does not abolish special privileges.
(False) Legal equality seeks to abolish special privileges, ensuring that laws apply uniformly to all individuals, irrespective of class or status.
(E) Legal equality cannot be the basis for contract-based relations.
(False) Legal equality is foundational for contract-based relations, as it ensures that parties entering into contracts have equal standing and rights under the law.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. A and C only
Explanation:
(A) Legal equality does not guarantee equality of treatment by the law.
(True) Legal equality means that all individuals are equal before the law. However, in practice, socio-economic factors, biases, and systemic inequalities can prevent equal treatment by the law.
(B) Legal equality contradicts rule of law.
(False) Legal equality is an essential component of the rule of law, as both emphasize that all individuals are subject to the same laws.
(C) Legal equality is a prominent characteristic of civil society.
(True) Legal equality is a defining feature of civil society, where all individuals are granted equal status and protection under the law.
(D) Legal equality does not abolish special privileges.
(False) Legal equality seeks to abolish special privileges, ensuring that laws apply uniformly to all individuals, irrespective of class or status.
(E) Legal equality cannot be the basis for contract-based relations.
(False) Legal equality is foundational for contract-based relations, as it ensures that parties entering into contracts have equal standing and rights under the law.
Question 13 of 75
13. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which of the following are correct about the Governor of a State?
A. The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
B. The minimum age for getting appointed as a Governor is 30 years.
C. The President conducts the Oath of the Governor.
D. The Governor has the power to grant pardons and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
E. The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act mandates both the States to share the emoluments and allowances of the Governor in case the same person is appointed as Governor of two States. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 4. A, D and E only
Explanation:
(A) The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(True) Article 156 of the Indian Constitution states that the Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President.
(B) The minimum age for getting appointed as a Governor is 30 years.
(False) The minimum age for appointment as a Governor is 35 years as per Article 157.
(C) The President conducts the Oath of the Governor.
(False) The Governor’s oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective state, or in their absence, the senior-most judge of the High Court.
(D) The Governor has the power to grant pardons and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
(True) Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor has such powers in cases related to state laws.
(E) The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act mandates both the States to share the emoluments and allowances of the Governor in case the same person is appointed as Governor of two States.
(True) The Seventh Amendment provides for this arrangement to address administrative and financial concerns when one individual serves as Governor for two states.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 4. A, D and E only
Explanation:
(A) The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(True) Article 156 of the Indian Constitution states that the Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President.
(B) The minimum age for getting appointed as a Governor is 30 years.
(False) The minimum age for appointment as a Governor is 35 years as per Article 157.
(C) The President conducts the Oath of the Governor.
(False) The Governor’s oath is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court of the respective state, or in their absence, the senior-most judge of the High Court.
(D) The Governor has the power to grant pardons and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.
(True) Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor has such powers in cases related to state laws.
(E) The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act mandates both the States to share the emoluments and allowances of the Governor in case the same person is appointed as Governor of two States.
(True) The Seventh Amendment provides for this arrangement to address administrative and financial concerns when one individual serves as Governor for two states.
Question 14 of 75
14. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which of the following are true about representative democracy?
A. Simple majority means more than half of those voting.
B. Blocking minority reflects a situation where a minority is able to prevent a proposal from passing.
C. Absolute majority means more than half of those entitled to vote.
D. Qualified majority demonstrates more than a simple majority which is typically two-third majority.
E. Concurrent majority indicates the largest number of votes but not necessarily a majority. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. A, B, C and D only
Explanation:
(A) Simple majority means more than half of those voting.
(True) A simple majority refers to securing more than half of the votes cast in an election or decision-making process.
(B) Blocking minority reflects a situation where a minority is able to prevent a proposal from passing.
(True) A blocking minority occurs when a minority has enough power (often through specific rules) to block or veto a proposal, even if the majority supports it.
(C) Absolute majority means more than half of those entitled to vote.
(True) An absolute majority requires more than half of the total number of eligible voters, whether or not they actually vote.
(D) Qualified majority demonstrates more than a simple majority, which is typically a two-thirds majority.
(True) A qualified majority is a higher threshold, such as two-thirds or three-fourths, used in certain decisions or constitutional amendments.
(E) Concurrent majority indicates the largest number of votes but not necessarily a majority.
(False) The term “concurrent majority” does not mean the largest number of votes. It refers to a situation where multiple groups (e.g., different regions or interest groups) must agree simultaneously for a decision to pass. The description in the statement fits “plurality,” not “concurrent majority.”
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. A, B, C and D only
Explanation:
(A) Simple majority means more than half of those voting.
(True) A simple majority refers to securing more than half of the votes cast in an election or decision-making process.
(B) Blocking minority reflects a situation where a minority is able to prevent a proposal from passing.
(True) A blocking minority occurs when a minority has enough power (often through specific rules) to block or veto a proposal, even if the majority supports it.
(C) Absolute majority means more than half of those entitled to vote.
(True) An absolute majority requires more than half of the total number of eligible voters, whether or not they actually vote.
(D) Qualified majority demonstrates more than a simple majority, which is typically a two-thirds majority.
(True) A qualified majority is a higher threshold, such as two-thirds or three-fourths, used in certain decisions or constitutional amendments.
(E) Concurrent majority indicates the largest number of votes but not necessarily a majority.
(False) The term “concurrent majority” does not mean the largest number of votes. It refers to a situation where multiple groups (e.g., different regions or interest groups) must agree simultaneously for a decision to pass. The description in the statement fits “plurality,” not “concurrent majority.”
Question 15 of 75
15. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Popular democracy is a form of indirect democracy.
Statement II: It pre-supposes factional or sectional division. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
Correct Answer: 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I: Popular democracy is not indirect; it refers to direct democracy where people participate directly.
Statement II: Popular democracy does not inherently assume factional or sectional divisions; it emphasizes collective participation.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Statement I: Popular democracy is not indirect; it refers to direct democracy where people participate directly.
Statement II: Popular democracy does not inherently assume factional or sectional divisions; it emphasizes collective participation.
Question 16 of 75
16. Question
Category: CUET PG
Article 226 of the Indian Constitution deals with
Correct
Correct Answer: 4. Power of High Courts to issue certain writs
Explanation:
Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. These writs include Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. It extends the scope of judicial review beyond fundamental rights, unlike Article 32, which is limited to the Supreme Court.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: 4. Power of High Courts to issue certain writs
Explanation:
Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose. These writs include Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto. It extends the scope of judicial review beyond fundamental rights, unlike Article 32, which is limited to the Supreme Court.
Question 17 of 75
17. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: During the first wave of democracy (1828-1926) nearly 30 countries, including Germany, established democratic institution.
Statement II: The first wave of democracy was partially reversed (reverse wave) between 1922 and 1942 in Germany and Italy. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
Correct Answer: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation:
Statement I: The first wave of democracy (1828-1926) saw around 30 countries, including Germany, adopting democratic institutions. This wave was influenced by movements for universal suffrage and constitutional governance.
Statement II: The first wave was partially reversed during the period between 1922 and 1942. Countries like Germany (under Hitler) and Italy (under Mussolini) saw the rise of authoritarian regimes, marking a reverse wave of democracy.
Both statements are accurate.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation:
Statement I: The first wave of democracy (1828-1926) saw around 30 countries, including Germany, adopting democratic institutions. This wave was influenced by movements for universal suffrage and constitutional governance.
Statement II: The first wave was partially reversed during the period between 1922 and 1942. Countries like Germany (under Hitler) and Italy (under Mussolini) saw the rise of authoritarian regimes, marking a reverse wave of democracy.
Both statements are accurate.
Question 18 of 75
18. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Theorists of global justice argue that the human beings, and the State, are central to any theory of justice.
Statement II: Thomas Pogge rejected the existence of institutional precondition for justice at the global level. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement I: Theorists of global justice indeed argue that both human beings and the State are central to any theory of justice. Theories of global justice often focus on how justice should be applied not just within states but across borders, considering the role of individuals and states in addressing global inequalities.
Statement II: Thomas Pogge did not reject the existence of institutional preconditions for justice at the global level. In fact, Pogge emphasizes the importance of global institutions and their roles in perpetuating global inequalities. He argues that the structure of global institutions can violate human rights, and reforming these institutions is essential for achieving global justice.
Therefore, Statement I is correct, while Statement II is incorrect.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement I: Theorists of global justice indeed argue that both human beings and the State are central to any theory of justice. Theories of global justice often focus on how justice should be applied not just within states but across borders, considering the role of individuals and states in addressing global inequalities.
Statement II: Thomas Pogge did not reject the existence of institutional preconditions for justice at the global level. In fact, Pogge emphasizes the importance of global institutions and their roles in perpetuating global inequalities. He argues that the structure of global institutions can violate human rights, and reforming these institutions is essential for achieving global justice.
Therefore, Statement I is correct, while Statement II is incorrect.
Question 19 of 75
19. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Robert Michels used the concept of ‘iron law of oligarchy’ to describe the organization of political parties based on domination by a ruling elite.
Statement II: Maurice Duverger’s law states that “the simple-majority single-ballot system favours the two-party system”. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation:
Statement I: Robert Michels used the concept of the “iron law of oligarchy” to explain that even in organizations meant to be democratic, power inevitably gets concentrated in the hands of a few elites. This concept is often applied to political parties, where a small ruling group dominates decision-making, despite the party’s democratic ideals.
Statement II: Maurice Duverger’s law states that the simple-majority single-ballot system tends to favor the development of a two-party system. This happens because the system rewards larger parties and discourages smaller ones, leading to a two-party dominance in electoral systems.
Both statements are accurate.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation:
Statement I: Robert Michels used the concept of the “iron law of oligarchy” to explain that even in organizations meant to be democratic, power inevitably gets concentrated in the hands of a few elites. This concept is often applied to political parties, where a small ruling group dominates decision-making, despite the party’s democratic ideals.
Statement II: Maurice Duverger’s law states that the simple-majority single-ballot system tends to favor the development of a two-party system. This happens because the system rewards larger parties and discourages smaller ones, leading to a two-party dominance in electoral systems.
Both statements are accurate.
Question 20 of 75
20. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Plato stated, “that the State comes into existence originating in the bare needs of the life and continuing in existence for the sake of good life.”
Statement II: Machiavelli, in the Prince, considered that “the power which has Authority over Men” is the State. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
Correct Answer: 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Statement I: The quote is not an accurate representation of Plato’s view. Plato emphasizes justice and the role of philosopher-kings rather than just basic needs and the good life.
Statement II: Machiavelli’s The Prince does indeed focus on the state’s authority over people, aligning with the idea of power and control.
Incorrect
Correct Answer: 4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Statement I: The quote is not an accurate representation of Plato’s view. Plato emphasizes justice and the role of philosopher-kings rather than just basic needs and the good life.
Statement II: Machiavelli’s The Prince does indeed focus on the state’s authority over people, aligning with the idea of power and control.
Question 21 of 75
21. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Party alliances since the 1990s have been on territorial compatibility than ideological compatibility.
Statement II: BJP’s alliances of 1998, 1999, 2004 and 2009 were not territorially compatible. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement I: Since the 1990s, party alliances in India have increasingly been formed based on territorial compatibility (i.e., regional parties coming together to form alliances) rather than strictly on ideological compatibility. This trend has been evident with the rise of regional parties and coalitions that focus on regional issues and power-sharing across different states.
Statement II: The BJP’s alliances in the years 1998, 1999, 2004, and 2009 were indeed territorially compatible, as the BJP formed coalitions with regional parties across different states, such as the AIADMK (Tamil Nadu), JD(U) (Bihar), and others. These alliances were not purely based on ideology but were strategically formed to cater to regional interests.
Thus, Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect because the BJP’s alliances were territorially compatible.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement I: Since the 1990s, party alliances in India have increasingly been formed based on territorial compatibility (i.e., regional parties coming together to form alliances) rather than strictly on ideological compatibility. This trend has been evident with the rise of regional parties and coalitions that focus on regional issues and power-sharing across different states.
Statement II: The BJP’s alliances in the years 1998, 1999, 2004, and 2009 were indeed territorially compatible, as the BJP formed coalitions with regional parties across different states, such as the AIADMK (Tamil Nadu), JD(U) (Bihar), and others. These alliances were not purely based on ideology but were strategically formed to cater to regional interests.
Thus, Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect because the BJP’s alliances were territorially compatible.
Question 22 of 75
22. Question
Category: CUET PG
Arrange the following fundamental rights in the right order:
A. Right to constitutional remedies
B. Right to life
C. Right to freedom
D. Right to equality Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. D, C, B, A
Explanation:
The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are arranged in the following order:
Right to Equality (D) – Article 14 to 18.
Right to Freedom (C) – Article 19 to 22.
Right to Life (B) – Article 21.
Right to Constitutional Remedies (A) – Article 32.
So, the correct sequence is D, C, B, A.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. D, C, B, A
Explanation:
The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution are arranged in the following order:
Right to Equality (D) – Article 14 to 18.
Right to Freedom (C) – Article 19 to 22.
Right to Life (B) – Article 21.
Right to Constitutional Remedies (A) – Article 32.
So, the correct sequence is D, C, B, A.
Question 23 of 75
23. Question
Category: CUET PG
Arrange the following provisions according to the Constitution of India:
A. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
B. Protection of interests of minorities
C. Prohibition of employment of children in factories
D. Protection in respect of conviction for offences Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct
The correct order is 4.D, C, A, B:
D (Article 20): Protection against double jeopardy, self-incrimination, and punishment without law.
C (Article 24): Prohibits child labor in factories.
A (Article 25): Grants freedom of conscience and religious practice.
B (Articles 29 and 30): Protects the cultural and educational rights of minorities.
Incorrect
The correct order is 4.D, C, A, B:
D (Article 20): Protection against double jeopardy, self-incrimination, and punishment without law.
C (Article 24): Prohibits child labor in factories.
A (Article 25): Grants freedom of conscience and religious practice.
B (Articles 29 and 30): Protects the cultural and educational rights of minorities.
Question 24 of 75
24. Question
Category: CUET PG
Arrange the following in chronological order with regard to its year of formation:
A. ASEAN
B. UN
C. SAARC
D. EU
E. NAM Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. B, E, A, C, D
Explanation:
The chronological order of formation is:
B. UN (United Nations) – 1945
E. NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) – 1961
A. ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) – 1967
C. SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) – 1985
D. EU (European Union) – Originally formed as the European Economic Community (EEC) in 1957, but the EU as it is known today was officially established by the Maastricht Treaty in 1993.
Hence, the correct sequence is B, E, A, C, D.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. B, E, A, C, D
Explanation:
The chronological order of formation is:
B. UN (United Nations) – 1945
E. NAM (Non-Aligned Movement) – 1961
A. ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) – 1967
C. SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) – 1985
D. EU (European Union) – Originally formed as the European Economic Community (EEC) in 1957, but the EU as it is known today was officially established by the Maastricht Treaty in 1993.
Hence, the correct sequence is B, E, A, C, D.
Question 25 of 75
25. Question
Category: CUET PG
Arrange the following in chronological order according the year of joining the European Council / European Union :
A. Spain
B. Croatia
C. Greece
D. Bulgaria Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct
The best answer is: 4. C, A, D, B
Explanation:
The European Union (EU) membership of the countries listed happened in this order:
C. Greece – Joined in 1981.
A. Spain – Joined in 1986.
D. Bulgaria – Joined in 2007.
B. Croatia – Joined in 2013.
This is the correct chronological order of joining the European Union.
Incorrect
The best answer is: 4. C, A, D, B
Explanation:
The European Union (EU) membership of the countries listed happened in this order:
C. Greece – Joined in 1981.
A. Spain – Joined in 1986.
D. Bulgaria – Joined in 2007.
B. Croatia – Joined in 2013.
This is the correct chronological order of joining the European Union.
Question 26 of 75
26. Question
Category: CUET PG
Arrange the following statements by Mahatma Gandhi on civilization in right order:
A. This civilization takes note neither of morality nor religion.
B. Civilization is not an incurable disease.
C. The people of Europe today live in better-built houses than they did a hundred years ago. This is considered emblem of civilization.
D. This civilization is such that one has only to be patient and it will be destroyed. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. C, A, D, B
Explanation:
The chronological order of Mahatma Gandhi’s statements on civilization is:
C. “The people of Europe today live in better-built houses than they did a hundred years ago. This is considered emblem of civilization.”
A. “This civilization takes note neither of morality nor religion.”
D. “This civilization is such that one has only to be patient and it will be destroyed.”
B. “Civilization is not an incurable disease.”
Thus, the correct sequence is C, A, D, B.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. C, A, D, B
Explanation:
The chronological order of Mahatma Gandhi’s statements on civilization is:
C. “The people of Europe today live in better-built houses than they did a hundred years ago. This is considered emblem of civilization.”
A. “This civilization takes note neither of morality nor religion.”
D. “This civilization is such that one has only to be patient and it will be destroyed.”
B. “Civilization is not an incurable disease.”
Thus, the correct sequence is C, A, D, B.
Question 27 of 75
27. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below is Karl Marx’s formulation of ‘Base and Superstructure’ in a jumbled order. Give the correct order :
A. The relations are relations of productions which correspond to a definite stage of development of their material productive forces.
B. The relations are indispensable and independent of their will.
C. The sum total of these relations of production constitutes the economic structure of society, the real foundation of a given society.
D. In social production of life, men enter into definite relations. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct
The correct answer is 2. D, B, A, C.
Explanation:
D: In the process of life’s production, people form definite relationships (relations of production).
B: These relations are necessary and independent of individual will.
A: These relations correspond to specific stages of development of the material forces (technology, tools, etc.).
C: The total of these relations makes up the economic structure (the base) of society, which forms the foundation for everything else (superstructure).
This is the correct order of Marx’s concept of Base and Superstructure.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 2. D, B, A, C.
Explanation:
D: In the process of life’s production, people form definite relationships (relations of production).
B: These relations are necessary and independent of individual will.
A: These relations correspond to specific stages of development of the material forces (technology, tools, etc.).
C: The total of these relations makes up the economic structure (the base) of society, which forms the foundation for everything else (superstructure).
This is the correct order of Marx’s concept of Base and Superstructure.
Question 28 of 75
28. Question
Category: CUET PG
Arrange the following statements by Rabindranath Tagore on Indian nationalism in order:
A. Politics in the West have dominated western ideals, and we in India are trying to initiate you.
B. Our real problem in India is not political. It is social.
C. Each nation must be conscious of its mission.
D. From the very beginning, India has a problem of race. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. B, A, D, C
Explanation:
Rabindranath Tagore’s thoughts on Indian nationalism can be arranged in this order:
B. “Our real problem in India is not political. It is social.”
Tagore emphasizes that the core issue for India is not politics but social problems.
A. “Politics in the West have dominated western ideals, and we in India are trying to initiate you.”
He points out how Western political ideals have influenced India and the struggle to adopt them.
D. “From the very beginning, India has a problem of race.”
He acknowledges that racial issues have been a long-standing challenge for India.
C. “Each nation must be conscious of its mission.”
Finally, Tagore concludes that each nation must understand and be aware of its unique mission and role.
Thus, the correct sequence is B, A, D, C.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. B, A, D, C
Explanation:
Rabindranath Tagore’s thoughts on Indian nationalism can be arranged in this order:
B. “Our real problem in India is not political. It is social.”
Tagore emphasizes that the core issue for India is not politics but social problems.
A. “Politics in the West have dominated western ideals, and we in India are trying to initiate you.”
He points out how Western political ideals have influenced India and the struggle to adopt them.
D. “From the very beginning, India has a problem of race.”
He acknowledges that racial issues have been a long-standing challenge for India.
C. “Each nation must be conscious of its mission.”
Finally, Tagore concludes that each nation must understand and be aware of its unique mission and role.
Thus, the correct sequence is B, A, D, C.
Question 29 of 75
29. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Judicial review is a process to restrain the executive or the legislature from exercising power which may not be sanctioned by the Constitution. Reason (R) : The source of the power of judicial review in India is Article 12 of the Constitution. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. (A) is true but (R) is false
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Judicial review is indeed a process where the judiciary restrains the executive or legislature from actions that are unconstitutional or beyond their powers.
Reason (R) is false: The power of judicial review in India does not directly come from Article 12. Article 12 defines the term “State” for the purpose of Fundamental Rights, but judicial review itself arises from the structure of the Constitution and has been established through judicial precedents, particularly by the Supreme Court in cases such as Marbury v. Madison and Keshavananda Bharati case. Judicial review is based on the basic structure of the Constitution.
Thus, (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. (A) is true but (R) is false
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Judicial review is indeed a process where the judiciary restrains the executive or legislature from actions that are unconstitutional or beyond their powers.
Reason (R) is false: The power of judicial review in India does not directly come from Article 12. Article 12 defines the term “State” for the purpose of Fundamental Rights, but judicial review itself arises from the structure of the Constitution and has been established through judicial precedents, particularly by the Supreme Court in cases such as Marbury v. Madison and Keshavananda Bharati case. Judicial review is based on the basic structure of the Constitution.
Thus, (A) is correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation.
Question 30 of 75
30. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Reservation of a State bill for the assent of the President is a discretionary power of the Governor. Reason (R) : This could be achieved through amending Article 156 of the Indian Constitution. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. (A) is true but (R) is false
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: The Governor has the discretionary power to reserve a State bill for the assent of the President under Article 200 of the Indian Constitution. This happens in cases where the bill might have serious implications on the federal structure or requires further scrutiny by the President.
Reason (R) is false: The reservation of a State bill for the assent of the President is not linked to amending Article 156 of the Constitution. Article 156 deals with the term of office of the Governor and the process for their removal. The power of the Governor to reserve a bill is governed by Article 200 and does not require an amendment to Article 156.
Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is incorrect in its reasoning.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. (A) is true but (R) is false
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: The Governor has the discretionary power to reserve a State bill for the assent of the President under Article 200 of the Indian Constitution. This happens in cases where the bill might have serious implications on the federal structure or requires further scrutiny by the President.
Reason (R) is false: The reservation of a State bill for the assent of the President is not linked to amending Article 156 of the Constitution. Article 156 deals with the term of office of the Governor and the process for their removal. The power of the Governor to reserve a bill is governed by Article 200 and does not require an amendment to Article 156.
Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is incorrect in its reasoning.
Question 31 of 75
31. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Five principles of peaceful coexistence known as ‘Panchsheel’ which is one of the fundamental principles of India’s foreign policy. Reason (R) : Providing equal space is one of the five principles of Panchsheel. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. (A) is true but (R) is false
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence, known as “Panchsheel,” are indeed a fundamental part of India’s foreign policy. These principles, articulated in 1954, were intended to guide international relations based on mutual respect for sovereignty, non-interference, and peaceful coexistence.
Reason (R) is false: The five principles of Panchsheel are:
Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
Mutual non-aggression.
Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.
Equality and mutual benefit.
Peaceful coexistence.
“Providing equal space” is not one of the principles. Instead, the principle of “equality and mutual benefit” is part of the Panchsheel framework.
Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. (A) is true but (R) is false
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence, known as “Panchsheel,” are indeed a fundamental part of India’s foreign policy. These principles, articulated in 1954, were intended to guide international relations based on mutual respect for sovereignty, non-interference, and peaceful coexistence.
Reason (R) is false: The five principles of Panchsheel are:
Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
Mutual non-aggression.
Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.
Equality and mutual benefit.
Peaceful coexistence.
“Providing equal space” is not one of the principles. Instead, the principle of “equality and mutual benefit” is part of the Panchsheel framework.
Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Question 32 of 75
32. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Robert Nozick illustrated negative liberty in his writings. Reason (R) : According to Robert Nozick, the primary threat to liberty is the imposition of obligation to which one has not consented. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct: Robert Nozick is indeed associated with the concept of negative liberty. He defined negative liberty as the absence of external constraints on the individual. In his influential book Anarchy, State, and Utopia (1974), Nozick argues for a minimal state and emphasizes that individuals should have the freedom to act as they choose, so long as they do not infringe on the rights of others.
Reason (R) is correct: Nozick argues that the primary threat to individual liberty comes from the imposition of obligations or duties that have not been voluntarily agreed upon. This idea is central to his libertarian philosophy, where he advocates for a minimal state that does not force individuals to provide for others’ welfare or impose obligations upon them that they have not consented to.
Therefore, both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) provides the correct explanation for (A).
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct: Robert Nozick is indeed associated with the concept of negative liberty. He defined negative liberty as the absence of external constraints on the individual. In his influential book Anarchy, State, and Utopia (1974), Nozick argues for a minimal state and emphasizes that individuals should have the freedom to act as they choose, so long as they do not infringe on the rights of others.
Reason (R) is correct: Nozick argues that the primary threat to individual liberty comes from the imposition of obligations or duties that have not been voluntarily agreed upon. This idea is central to his libertarian philosophy, where he advocates for a minimal state that does not force individuals to provide for others’ welfare or impose obligations upon them that they have not consented to.
Therefore, both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) provides the correct explanation for (A).
Question 33 of 75
33. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): Gandhi supported Panchayati Raj Institutions for a better administration. Reason (R) : Ambedkar condemned the panchayats as a repressive and oppressive institution. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct: Gandhi strongly supported the Panchayati Raj system, seeing it as a decentralized form of governance that would promote self-reliance, social justice, and more inclusive, grassroots-level participation in administration. For Gandhi, the Panchayat system was key to empowering rural communities and enhancing local democracy.
Reason (R) is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, on the other hand, was critical of the Panchayati Raj system. He considered it as a tool for perpetuating caste-based oppression, as the panchayats in rural India were often dominated by upper-caste individuals who could suppress the lower castes, particularly the Dalits. Ambedkar believed that the system, in its traditional form, reinforced social hierarchies rather than promoting social justice.
However, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Gandhi’s support for Panchayati Raj was based on his vision of self-governance and rural empowerment, while Ambedkar’s condemnation of it came from his concerns about caste discrimination and inequality. Thus, the two positions are based on different ideological foundations and do not directly explain one another.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct: Gandhi strongly supported the Panchayati Raj system, seeing it as a decentralized form of governance that would promote self-reliance, social justice, and more inclusive, grassroots-level participation in administration. For Gandhi, the Panchayat system was key to empowering rural communities and enhancing local democracy.
Reason (R) is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, on the other hand, was critical of the Panchayati Raj system. He considered it as a tool for perpetuating caste-based oppression, as the panchayats in rural India were often dominated by upper-caste individuals who could suppress the lower castes, particularly the Dalits. Ambedkar believed that the system, in its traditional form, reinforced social hierarchies rather than promoting social justice.
However, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Gandhi’s support for Panchayati Raj was based on his vision of self-governance and rural empowerment, while Ambedkar’s condemnation of it came from his concerns about caste discrimination and inequality. Thus, the two positions are based on different ideological foundations and do not directly explain one another.
Question 34 of 75
34. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): According to Plato, “the State is individual writ large”. Reason (R): The virtues found in an individual are found in larger form in the State. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct: Plato, in his work The Republic, describes the state as “the individual writ large,” meaning that the structure and dynamics of the state are reflections of the individual’s qualities, virtues, and flaws, expanded to a larger scale. Plato believed that the state mirrors the individual, and just as individuals have different parts (reason, spirit, appetite), the state has analogous parts (rulers, soldiers, producers).
Reason (R) is also correct: Plato argued that the virtues found in an individual—wisdom, courage, temperance, and justice—are also found in the state but in a more collective form. The philosopher-kings embody wisdom, the soldiers embody courage, and the producers (farmers, artisans) embody temperance. Justice, the central virtue, is achieved when each class in the state performs its proper function, just as justice in the individual occurs when each part of the soul performs its proper role.
Since (R) correctly explains (A), the answer is 1.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct: Plato, in his work The Republic, describes the state as “the individual writ large,” meaning that the structure and dynamics of the state are reflections of the individual’s qualities, virtues, and flaws, expanded to a larger scale. Plato believed that the state mirrors the individual, and just as individuals have different parts (reason, spirit, appetite), the state has analogous parts (rulers, soldiers, producers).
Reason (R) is also correct: Plato argued that the virtues found in an individual—wisdom, courage, temperance, and justice—are also found in the state but in a more collective form. The philosopher-kings embody wisdom, the soldiers embody courage, and the producers (farmers, artisans) embody temperance. Justice, the central virtue, is achieved when each class in the state performs its proper function, just as justice in the individual occurs when each part of the soul performs its proper role.
Since (R) correctly explains (A), the answer is 1.
Question 35 of 75
35. Question
Category: CUET PG
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): Assertion (A): G. Sartori has presented a comprehensive analysis of multi- party system. Reason (R) : Sartori classified political parties in four types-caucus, branch, cell and militia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct: G. Sartori did present a comprehensive analysis of multi-party systems in his book Parties and Party Systems. He is well-known for his study of party systems, where he categorized them based on the number of parties and how these parties interact with each other.
Reason (R) is incorrect: Sartori did not classify political parties into “caucus, branch, cell, and militia.” These terms are not part of Sartori’s classification system. Sartori’s typology of parties and party systems focuses on the number of parties (e.g., two-party systems, multi-party systems) and how they interact in the political process. He categorized party systems into systems like the “two-party system,” “moderate multi-party system,” and “polarized multi-party system.”
Thus, while (A) is correct, (R) is not correct.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct: G. Sartori did present a comprehensive analysis of multi-party systems in his book Parties and Party Systems. He is well-known for his study of party systems, where he categorized them based on the number of parties and how these parties interact with each other.
Reason (R) is incorrect: Sartori did not classify political parties into “caucus, branch, cell, and militia.” These terms are not part of Sartori’s classification system. Sartori’s typology of parties and party systems focuses on the number of parties (e.g., two-party systems, multi-party systems) and how they interact in the political process. He categorized party systems into systems like the “two-party system,” “moderate multi-party system,” and “polarized multi-party system.”
Thus, while (A) is correct, (R) is not correct.
Question 36 of 75
36. Question
Category: CUET PG
In which of Aristotle’s works, it is stated that the highest good for human beings is happiness, attained through moral and intellectual virtue?
Correct
The correct answer is: 4. Nicomachean ethics
Explanation:
In Nicomachean Ethics, Aristotle discusses his concept of the highest good for human beings, which he defines as happiness (or eudaimonia). According to Aristotle, happiness is achieved through the cultivation of both moral virtue (character traits such as courage, generosity, and honesty) and intellectual virtue (wisdom and understanding). This work lays the foundation for Aristotle’s ethical theory, emphasizing that living a life of virtue leads to the fulfillment of human potential and the attainment of happiness.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 4. Nicomachean ethics
Explanation:
In Nicomachean Ethics, Aristotle discusses his concept of the highest good for human beings, which he defines as happiness (or eudaimonia). According to Aristotle, happiness is achieved through the cultivation of both moral virtue (character traits such as courage, generosity, and honesty) and intellectual virtue (wisdom and understanding). This work lays the foundation for Aristotle’s ethical theory, emphasizing that living a life of virtue leads to the fulfillment of human potential and the attainment of happiness.
Question 37 of 75
37. Question
Category: CUET PG
Who among the following scholars presented Hobbes’ ‘State of Nature’ as a society of self-interested competitive individualism?
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. C. B. Macpherson
Explanation:
C. B. Macpherson is known for his interpretation of Hobbes’ ‘State of Nature’ as a society characterized by self-interested competitive individualism. In his work The Political Theory of Possessive Individualism, Macpherson argued that Hobbes’ view of human nature in the state of nature reflects the modern, capitalist idea of individuals as autonomous, self-interested beings primarily concerned with acquiring and protecting their own possessions. Macpherson viewed Hobbes’ political philosophy as grounded in this possessive individualism, where individuals are in constant competition, each seeking to secure their own survival and interests.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. C. B. Macpherson
Explanation:
C. B. Macpherson is known for his interpretation of Hobbes’ ‘State of Nature’ as a society characterized by self-interested competitive individualism. In his work The Political Theory of Possessive Individualism, Macpherson argued that Hobbes’ view of human nature in the state of nature reflects the modern, capitalist idea of individuals as autonomous, self-interested beings primarily concerned with acquiring and protecting their own possessions. Macpherson viewed Hobbes’ political philosophy as grounded in this possessive individualism, where individuals are in constant competition, each seeking to secure their own survival and interests.
Question 38 of 75
38. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following is a book by Machiavelli?
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. Discourses
Explanation:
Machiavelli’s Discourses (often referred to as Discourses on Livy) is one of his important works, where he discusses the structure and functioning of republics, drawing on the ancient Roman historian Livy. This work focuses on the functioning of republican government and explores themes such as political power, the role of the people, and the importance of civic virtue.
The other options are works by different thinkers:
2. Discourse on the Sciences and Arts is by Jean-Jacques Rousseau.
3. Discourse on the Origin and the Foundation of Inequality Among Men is also by Jean-Jacques Rousseau.
4. Letter Concerning Toleration is by John Locke.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. Discourses
Explanation:
Machiavelli’s Discourses (often referred to as Discourses on Livy) is one of his important works, where he discusses the structure and functioning of republics, drawing on the ancient Roman historian Livy. This work focuses on the functioning of republican government and explores themes such as political power, the role of the people, and the importance of civic virtue.
The other options are works by different thinkers:
2. Discourse on the Sciences and Arts is by Jean-Jacques Rousseau.
3. Discourse on the Origin and the Foundation of Inequality Among Men is also by Jean-Jacques Rousseau.
4. Letter Concerning Toleration is by John Locke.
Question 39 of 75
39. Question
Category: CUET PG
Justice as requital refers to
Correct
The correct answer is: 4. Fair exchange
Explanation:
Justice as requital refers to the concept of giving people what they are due based on their actions. It implies a system of fair exchange, where individuals receive rewards or punishments in accordance with their behavior or deeds. This idea is often tied to retributive justice, where actions (either good or bad) are met with appropriate consequences. The emphasis is on ensuring fairness and proportionality in the exchange of rewards and penalties.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 4. Fair exchange
Explanation:
Justice as requital refers to the concept of giving people what they are due based on their actions. It implies a system of fair exchange, where individuals receive rewards or punishments in accordance with their behavior or deeds. This idea is often tied to retributive justice, where actions (either good or bad) are met with appropriate consequences. The emphasis is on ensuring fairness and proportionality in the exchange of rewards and penalties.
Question 40 of 75
40. Question
Category: CUET PG
The full form of NSSP, a pact between India and United States, stands for
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. Next Steps in Strategic Partnership
Explanation:
The Next Steps in Strategic Partnership (NSSP) is an agreement between India and the United States aimed at strengthening their bilateral relations, particularly in the areas of nuclear, defense, and technology cooperation. This pact was initiated in 2004 to enhance collaboration in various strategic sectors, including the peaceful use of nuclear energy, counter-terrorism, and non-proliferation.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. Next Steps in Strategic Partnership
Explanation:
The Next Steps in Strategic Partnership (NSSP) is an agreement between India and the United States aimed at strengthening their bilateral relations, particularly in the areas of nuclear, defense, and technology cooperation. This pact was initiated in 2004 to enhance collaboration in various strategic sectors, including the peaceful use of nuclear energy, counter-terrorism, and non-proliferation.
Question 41 of 75
41. Question
Category: CUET PG
Reformist ecology is also known as
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. Humanist or shallow ecology
Explanation:
Reformist ecology, often referred to as humanist or shallow ecology, focuses on environmental issues within the framework of human welfare and interests. It emphasizes reforms within existing systems, like improving pollution control or advocating for sustainable resource use, rather than fundamentally challenging the socio-economic structures. This contrasts with more radical perspectives such as deep ecology, which advocates for a fundamental shift in human relations to the natural world, often arguing for intrinsic value in nature beyond its utility to humans.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. Humanist or shallow ecology
Explanation:
Reformist ecology, often referred to as humanist or shallow ecology, focuses on environmental issues within the framework of human welfare and interests. It emphasizes reforms within existing systems, like improving pollution control or advocating for sustainable resource use, rather than fundamentally challenging the socio-economic structures. This contrasts with more radical perspectives such as deep ecology, which advocates for a fundamental shift in human relations to the natural world, often arguing for intrinsic value in nature beyond its utility to humans.
Question 42 of 75
42. Question
Category: CUET PG
Who among the following realist theorists considered that a basic feature of international relations is the decentralized structure of anarchy between States?
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. Kenneth Waltz
Explanation:
Kenneth Waltz, a prominent realist theorist, is best known for his structural realism (also called neorealism), which emphasizes that the decentralized structure of anarchy in the international system is a fundamental feature of international relations. According to Waltz, the absence of a central authority or government at the international level leads to an anarchic system where states act primarily in their own interest for security and survival.
Waltz’s theory differs from traditional realism (associated with thinkers like Hans J. Morgenthau) by focusing more on the structure of the international system rather than the human nature of political actors.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. Kenneth Waltz
Explanation:
Kenneth Waltz, a prominent realist theorist, is best known for his structural realism (also called neorealism), which emphasizes that the decentralized structure of anarchy in the international system is a fundamental feature of international relations. According to Waltz, the absence of a central authority or government at the international level leads to an anarchic system where states act primarily in their own interest for security and survival.
Waltz’s theory differs from traditional realism (associated with thinkers like Hans J. Morgenthau) by focusing more on the structure of the international system rather than the human nature of political actors.
Question 43 of 75
43. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following is not associated with Cold War?
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. Nationalization of Suez Canal
Explanation:
The nationalization of the Suez Canal in 1956 is not directly associated with the Cold War. It was a significant event in the Middle East involving Egypt’s President Gamal Abdel Nasser’s decision to seize the Suez Canal, previously controlled by British and French interests. The crisis that followed led to military intervention by Britain, France, and Israel, but it was more about regional power dynamics and colonial legacies rather than the Cold War competition between the United States and the Soviet Union.
The other options are directly linked to Cold War politics:
Creation of Bizonia (1947): The merger of the American and British zones of occupation in Germany after World War II, leading to the formation of West Germany, which played a significant role in the Cold War.
Truman Doctrine of Containment (1947): A U.S. policy aimed at containing the spread of communism, primarily directed at the Soviet Union and its allies during the early Cold War.
Marshall Plan (1948): U.S. economic assistance program designed to rebuild Western Europe after World War II, which was also seen as a strategy to counter Soviet influence in Europe.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. Nationalization of Suez Canal
Explanation:
The nationalization of the Suez Canal in 1956 is not directly associated with the Cold War. It was a significant event in the Middle East involving Egypt’s President Gamal Abdel Nasser’s decision to seize the Suez Canal, previously controlled by British and French interests. The crisis that followed led to military intervention by Britain, France, and Israel, but it was more about regional power dynamics and colonial legacies rather than the Cold War competition between the United States and the Soviet Union.
The other options are directly linked to Cold War politics:
Creation of Bizonia (1947): The merger of the American and British zones of occupation in Germany after World War II, leading to the formation of West Germany, which played a significant role in the Cold War.
Truman Doctrine of Containment (1947): A U.S. policy aimed at containing the spread of communism, primarily directed at the Soviet Union and its allies during the early Cold War.
Marshall Plan (1948): U.S. economic assistance program designed to rebuild Western Europe after World War II, which was also seen as a strategy to counter Soviet influence in Europe.
Question 44 of 75
44. Question
Category: CUET PG
The South Asian University jointly established by eight-SAARC member States is at
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. New Delhi
Explanation:
The South Asian University (SAU) is located in New Delhi, India. It was jointly established by the eight member states of the SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) to promote regional cooperation in higher education in South Asia. The university aims to provide high-quality education and promote research across various disciplines, serving as a platform for cultural and intellectual exchange among the member countries of SAARC.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. New Delhi
Explanation:
The South Asian University (SAU) is located in New Delhi, India. It was jointly established by the eight member states of the SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) to promote regional cooperation in higher education in South Asia. The university aims to provide high-quality education and promote research across various disciplines, serving as a platform for cultural and intellectual exchange among the member countries of SAARC.
Question 45 of 75
45. Question
Category: CUET PG
The judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by the
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. General Assembly and Security Council
Explanation:
The judges of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) are elected by both the United Nations General Assembly and the United Nations Security Council. These two bodies vote independently but concurrently, and a candidate must receive an absolute majority in both to be elected. The ICJ consists of 15 judges, each serving a term of nine years, and they are chosen to represent the world’s main legal systems while ensuring impartiality and fairness.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. General Assembly and Security Council
Explanation:
The judges of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) are elected by both the United Nations General Assembly and the United Nations Security Council. These two bodies vote independently but concurrently, and a candidate must receive an absolute majority in both to be elected. The ICJ consists of 15 judges, each serving a term of nine years, and they are chosen to represent the world’s main legal systems while ensuring impartiality and fairness.
Question 46 of 75
46. Question
Category: CUET PG
The first ASEAN summit was held in which city/country?
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. Bali (Indonesia)
Explanation:
The first ASEAN Summit was held in Bali, Indonesia, in 1976. This summit was a key moment in the history of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), as it led to the adoption of the Treaty of Amity and Cooperation (TAC) and the Bali Concord, which emphasized regional cooperation and peace.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. Bali (Indonesia)
Explanation:
The first ASEAN Summit was held in Bali, Indonesia, in 1976. This summit was a key moment in the history of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN), as it led to the adoption of the Treaty of Amity and Cooperation (TAC) and the Bali Concord, which emphasized regional cooperation and peace.
Question 47 of 75
47. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which one of the following is the largest committee of the Parliament?
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. The Committee on Estimates
Explanation:
The Committee on Estimates is the largest committee of the Indian Parliament, consisting of 30 members who are elected annually from the Lok Sabha. The primary function of the committee is to examine the budget estimates and suggest economies in public expenditure. This committee plays a crucial role in financial oversight and ensuring efficient utilization of government resources.
In comparison:
Committee on Public Accounts: Comprises 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).
Committee on Public Undertakings: Comprises 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).
Committee on Petitions: Comprises fewer members than the Estimates Committee.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. The Committee on Estimates
Explanation:
The Committee on Estimates is the largest committee of the Indian Parliament, consisting of 30 members who are elected annually from the Lok Sabha. The primary function of the committee is to examine the budget estimates and suggest economies in public expenditure. This committee plays a crucial role in financial oversight and ensuring efficient utilization of government resources.
In comparison:
Committee on Public Accounts: Comprises 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).
Committee on Public Undertakings: Comprises 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha).
Committee on Petitions: Comprises fewer members than the Estimates Committee.
Question 48 of 75
48. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which one of the following does not find mention in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. Dignity of the Constitution
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution mentions the following key ideals:
Dignity of the individual
Fraternity
Unity and integrity of the nation
However, it does not specifically mention the “dignity of the Constitution.” The Preamble reflects the core values and objectives of the Constitution, emphasizing justice, liberty, equality, fraternity, and the unity and integrity of the nation.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. Dignity of the Constitution
Explanation:
The Preamble to the Indian Constitution mentions the following key ideals:
Dignity of the individual
Fraternity
Unity and integrity of the nation
However, it does not specifically mention the “dignity of the Constitution.” The Preamble reflects the core values and objectives of the Constitution, emphasizing justice, liberty, equality, fraternity, and the unity and integrity of the nation.
Question 49 of 75
49. Question
Category: CUET PG
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the State falls under its
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. Original jurisdiction
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution to decide disputes between:
The Government of India and one or more States.
The Government of India and any State(s) on one side and other State(s) on the other side.
Two or more States.
This power allows the Supreme Court to act as the primary court to hear and decide such disputes directly, rather than through appeal.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. Original jurisdiction
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India has original jurisdiction under Article 131 of the Constitution to decide disputes between:
The Government of India and one or more States.
The Government of India and any State(s) on one side and other State(s) on the other side.
Two or more States.
This power allows the Supreme Court to act as the primary court to hear and decide such disputes directly, rather than through appeal.
Question 50 of 75
50. Question
Category: CUET PG
Who amongst these developed the ‘garbage can model’ of policy-making?
Correct
The correct answer is: 4. Michael Cohen
Explanation:
The ‘garbage can model’ of policy-making was developed by Michael D. Cohen, James G. March, and Johan P. Olsen in 1972.
It describes decision-making in organizations as a chaotic and non-linear process.
Problems, solutions, participants, and choices are seen as independent streams that come together randomly in a “garbage can” based on timing and opportunity, rather than a rational process.
It emphasizes the lack of clear goals and structured processes, especially in ambiguous and complex situations.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 4. Michael Cohen
Explanation:
The ‘garbage can model’ of policy-making was developed by Michael D. Cohen, James G. March, and Johan P. Olsen in 1972.
It describes decision-making in organizations as a chaotic and non-linear process.
Problems, solutions, participants, and choices are seen as independent streams that come together randomly in a “garbage can” based on timing and opportunity, rather than a rational process.
It emphasizes the lack of clear goals and structured processes, especially in ambiguous and complex situations.
Question 51 of 75
51. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following is not a form of authoritarian rule?
Correct
The correct answer is:
4. Direct democracy
Explanation:
Direct democracy is a system of government where citizens directly participate in decision-making and governance. It emphasizes public involvement and contrasts with authoritarian rule.
In contrast, the other options are forms of authoritarian rule:
Absolute monarchy: Power is concentrated in the hands of a single monarch without constitutional limitations.
Military rule: The military controls governance, often through a coup or force.
Theocracy: Governance is based on religious principles, often with leaders claiming divine authority.
Incorrect
The correct answer is:
4. Direct democracy
Explanation:
Direct democracy is a system of government where citizens directly participate in decision-making and governance. It emphasizes public involvement and contrasts with authoritarian rule.
In contrast, the other options are forms of authoritarian rule:
Absolute monarchy: Power is concentrated in the hands of a single monarch without constitutional limitations.
Military rule: The military controls governance, often through a coup or force.
Theocracy: Governance is based on religious principles, often with leaders claiming divine authority.
Question 52 of 75
52. Question
Category: CUET PG
The steep decline in population due to underinvestments in healthcare and education known as ‘demographic disaster refers to
Correct
The correct answer is: 4. Russia
Explanation:
Demographic disaster refers to a steep decline in population due to factors like low birth rates, high mortality rates, and inadequate investments in healthcare and education.
Russia experienced such a demographic decline, especially after the collapse of the Soviet Union. Factors like reduced healthcare access, alcoholism, lower life expectancy, and economic instability contributed to this phenomenon.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 4. Russia
Explanation:
Demographic disaster refers to a steep decline in population due to factors like low birth rates, high mortality rates, and inadequate investments in healthcare and education.
Russia experienced such a demographic decline, especially after the collapse of the Soviet Union. Factors like reduced healthcare access, alcoholism, lower life expectancy, and economic instability contributed to this phenomenon.
Question 53 of 75
53. Question
Category: CUET PG
Who propounded the doctrine of ‘iron law of oligarchy?
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. R. Michels
Explanation:
Robert Michels propounded the doctrine of the ‘iron law of oligarchy’ in his work Political Parties (1911).
This theory suggests that all organizations, including democratic ones, inevitably develop oligarchic tendencies where power becomes concentrated in the hands of a few leaders, regardless of the organization’s original democratic intentions.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. R. Michels
Explanation:
Robert Michels propounded the doctrine of the ‘iron law of oligarchy’ in his work Political Parties (1911).
This theory suggests that all organizations, including democratic ones, inevitably develop oligarchic tendencies where power becomes concentrated in the hands of a few leaders, regardless of the organization’s original democratic intentions.
Question 54 of 75
54. Question
Category: CUET PG
The idea of hegemony is a key concept in the writings of
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. Antonio Gramsci
Explanation:
Antonio Gramsci, an Italian Marxist theorist, introduced the concept of hegemony in his Prison Notebooks.
He argued that the ruling class maintains control not just through political or economic power, but also through cultural and ideological means, thus securing the consent of subordinate groups. This idea goes beyond mere coercion and involves shaping the beliefs, values, and norms of society to align with the interests of the dominant class.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. Antonio Gramsci
Explanation:
Antonio Gramsci, an Italian Marxist theorist, introduced the concept of hegemony in his Prison Notebooks.
He argued that the ruling class maintains control not just through political or economic power, but also through cultural and ideological means, thus securing the consent of subordinate groups. This idea goes beyond mere coercion and involves shaping the beliefs, values, and norms of society to align with the interests of the dominant class.
Question 55 of 75
55. Question
Category: CUET PG
Equality of opportunity means
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. everybody has equal opportunity
Explanation:
Equality of opportunity means that all individuals should have the same chances to pursue their goals, regardless of their background, gender, race, or social status.
It emphasizes that barriers based on these factors should be removed, and everyone should be able to compete on equal terms. This is central to achieving fairness in social, educational, and economic contexts.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. everybody has equal opportunity
Explanation:
Equality of opportunity means that all individuals should have the same chances to pursue their goals, regardless of their background, gender, race, or social status.
It emphasizes that barriers based on these factors should be removed, and everyone should be able to compete on equal terms. This is central to achieving fairness in social, educational, and economic contexts.
Question 56 of 75
56. Question
Category: CUET PG
Thomas Hobbes defined sovereignty as
Correct
The correct answer is: 3. the monopoly of coercive power of singular ruler
Explanation:
Thomas Hobbes, in his work Leviathan, defined sovereignty as the absolute and undivided power held by a singular ruler or sovereign.
For Hobbes, sovereignty was essential for maintaining peace and preventing civil war. He argued that individuals in a society must surrender their rights to a sovereign authority, which would have the ultimate power to enforce laws and ensure security. This sovereign power, in Hobbes’ view, was a monopoly on coercive force.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 3. the monopoly of coercive power of singular ruler
Explanation:
Thomas Hobbes, in his work Leviathan, defined sovereignty as the absolute and undivided power held by a singular ruler or sovereign.
For Hobbes, sovereignty was essential for maintaining peace and preventing civil war. He argued that individuals in a society must surrender their rights to a sovereign authority, which would have the ultimate power to enforce laws and ensure security. This sovereign power, in Hobbes’ view, was a monopoly on coercive force.
Question 57 of 75
57. Question
Category: CUET PG
Who said the following? “Can you have economic reform without first bringing about a reform of the social order?”
Correct
The correct answer is: 1. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
The statement “Can you have economic reform without first bringing about a reform of the social order?” was made by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. He emphasized in his work “Annihilation of Caste” that addressing the caste system was crucial for meaningful economic reform in India.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 1. B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
The statement “Can you have economic reform without first bringing about a reform of the social order?” was made by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. He emphasized in his work “Annihilation of Caste” that addressing the caste system was crucial for meaningful economic reform in India.
Question 58 of 75
58. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following is not Marx’s Laws of Dialectics?
Correct
The correct answer is 2. Increase in quality leads to quantitative change.
Explanation: This is not one of Marx’s Laws of Dialectics. The correct formulation is that increase in quantity leads to qualitative change, meaning that a quantitative change in a certain condition or phenomenon can eventually result in a qualitative transformation when a certain threshold is crossed. The other three options — negation of negation, unity and struggle of opposites, and the law of quantity and quality — are part of Marx’s dialectical materialism.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 2. Increase in quality leads to quantitative change.
Explanation: This is not one of Marx’s Laws of Dialectics. The correct formulation is that increase in quantity leads to qualitative change, meaning that a quantitative change in a certain condition or phenomenon can eventually result in a qualitative transformation when a certain threshold is crossed. The other three options — negation of negation, unity and struggle of opposites, and the law of quantity and quality — are part of Marx’s dialectical materialism.
Question 59 of 75
59. Question
Category: CUET PG
According to Plato’s theory of men and metals, the rulers have
Correct
The correct answer is 3. gold.
Explanation: According to Plato’s theory of men and metals, which he presents in The Republic, the rulers (philosopher-kings) are associated with gold. This represents their wisdom and ability to rule justly. Plato divided society into three classes: the rulers (gold), the auxiliaries (silver), and the producers (bronze/iron). The gold represents the highest quality of individuals, those who possess the knowledge and virtue to govern.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 3. gold.
Explanation: According to Plato’s theory of men and metals, which he presents in The Republic, the rulers (philosopher-kings) are associated with gold. This represents their wisdom and ability to rule justly. Plato divided society into three classes: the rulers (gold), the auxiliaries (silver), and the producers (bronze/iron). The gold represents the highest quality of individuals, those who possess the knowledge and virtue to govern.
Question 60 of 75
60. Question
Category: CUET PG
The book authored by John Rawls on justice in international relations is
Correct
The correct answer is 4. The Law of Peoples.
Explanation: John Rawls’ book The Law of Peoples extends his theory of justice to the realm of international relations. In this work, he applies the principles of justice to the interactions between nations, exploring concepts like human rights, global justice, and the duties of states toward each other.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 4. The Law of Peoples.
Explanation: John Rawls’ book The Law of Peoples extends his theory of justice to the realm of international relations. In this work, he applies the principles of justice to the interactions between nations, exploring concepts like human rights, global justice, and the duties of states toward each other.
Question 61 of 75
61. Question
Category: CUET PG
The first delimitation was carried out under whose office?
Correct
The correct answer is 2. President.
Explanation: The first delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in India was carried out under the office of the President of India. This was done based on the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, which set the guidelines for the reorganization of constituencies.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 2. President.
Explanation: The first delimitation of parliamentary constituencies in India was carried out under the office of the President of India. This was done based on the provisions of the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, which set the guidelines for the reorganization of constituencies.
Question 62 of 75
62. Question
Category: CUET PG
In the history of Parliament of India, how many times the parliamentary proceedings were censured?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 63 of 75
63. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which of the following taxes does not come under the Union List?
Correct
The correct answer is 2. Capitation tax.
Explanation: Capitation tax is not included in the Union List. It is a tax levied on individuals at a fixed rate, irrespective of their income or wealth, and it falls under the jurisdiction of the States, not the Union Government. The other taxes, such as corporation tax, taxes on income (other than agricultural income), and taxes on the capital of companies, are part of the Union List.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 2. Capitation tax.
Explanation: Capitation tax is not included in the Union List. It is a tax levied on individuals at a fixed rate, irrespective of their income or wealth, and it falls under the jurisdiction of the States, not the Union Government. The other taxes, such as corporation tax, taxes on income (other than agricultural income), and taxes on the capital of companies, are part of the Union List.
Question 64 of 75
64. Question
Category: CUET PG
When the President of India addresses a joint session of the Parliament, who presides over the session?
Correct
1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint session of the Parliament of India when the President addresses it. If the Speaker is absent, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the session. If both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the session.
Explanation
The President of India calls a joint session of the Parliament of India.
The joint session is held to pass a bill that has been rejected by one house of the Parliament.
The joint session can also be called if the houses of Parliament do not agree on amendments to a bill.
Incorrect
1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint session of the Parliament of India when the President addresses it. If the Speaker is absent, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the session. If both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker are absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over the session.
Explanation
The President of India calls a joint session of the Parliament of India.
The joint session is held to pass a bill that has been rejected by one house of the Parliament.
The joint session can also be called if the houses of Parliament do not agree on amendments to a bill.
Question 65 of 75
65. Question
Category: CUET PG
The term of the Lok Sabha was extended to six years by which of the following amendment?
Correct
The correct answer is: 2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
The 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India, passed in 1976, extended the term of the Lok Sabha from five to six years. However, the 44th Amendment in 1978 restored the original term of five years.
Explanation
The term of the Lok Sabha is five years from the date of its first meeting, unless it is dissolved.
During an emergency, Parliament can extend the term of the Lok Sabha by up to one year at a time.
The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time.
Incorrect
The correct answer is: 2. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
The 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India, passed in 1976, extended the term of the Lok Sabha from five to six years. However, the 44th Amendment in 1978 restored the original term of five years.
Explanation
The term of the Lok Sabha is five years from the date of its first meeting, unless it is dissolved.
During an emergency, Parliament can extend the term of the Lok Sabha by up to one year at a time.
The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time.
Question 66 of 75
66. Question
Category: CUET PG
The International Court of Justice is located at
Correct
The correct answer is 3. The Hague.
Explanation: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is located in The Hague, Netherlands. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN) and settles legal disputes between states and gives advisory opinions on international legal questions.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 3. The Hague.
Explanation: The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is located in The Hague, Netherlands. It is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations (UN) and settles legal disputes between states and gives advisory opinions on international legal questions.
Question 67 of 75
67. Question
Category: CUET PG
Who among the following scholars described the shift from an interventionist to a regulatory State in India?
Correct
The correct answer is 3. Lloyd Rudolph and Susanne Rudolph.
Explanation: Lloyd Rudolph and Susanne Rudolph are known for describing the shift from an interventionist to a regulatory state in India. They analyzed the changing role of the state in India, particularly its shift from being directly involved in economic activities to a more regulatory and controlling role, especially after the 1991 economic reforms.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 3. Lloyd Rudolph and Susanne Rudolph.
Explanation: Lloyd Rudolph and Susanne Rudolph are known for describing the shift from an interventionist to a regulatory state in India. They analyzed the changing role of the state in India, particularly its shift from being directly involved in economic activities to a more regulatory and controlling role, especially after the 1991 economic reforms.
Question 68 of 75
68. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which of the following is not an official actor of public policy?
Correct
The correct answer is 1. Political parties.
Explanation: Political parties are not considered official actors in the context of public policy. The official actors in public policy typically include the Judiciary, Administrators, and the Executive, all of whom play formal roles in the creation, implementation, and interpretation of policy. Political parties, though influential in shaping public policy, are not part of the formal structure of public policy actors.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 1. Political parties.
Explanation: Political parties are not considered official actors in the context of public policy. The official actors in public policy typically include the Judiciary, Administrators, and the Executive, all of whom play formal roles in the creation, implementation, and interpretation of policy. Political parties, though influential in shaping public policy, are not part of the formal structure of public policy actors.
Question 69 of 75
69. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which of the following regional parties does not have a regional-ethnic character?
Correct
The correct answer is 4. AAP in Delhi.
Explanation: The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) in Delhi is not a regional-ethnic party. While it emerged from a movement focused on anti-corruption and governance issues, it does not specifically represent a regional or ethnic group, unlike the TDP (Telugu Desam Party) in Andhra Pradesh, the AGP (Assam Gana Parishad) in Assam, and the AIADMK (All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) in Tamil Nadu, all of which have regional and ethnic bases in their respective states.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 4. AAP in Delhi.
Explanation: The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) in Delhi is not a regional-ethnic party. While it emerged from a movement focused on anti-corruption and governance issues, it does not specifically represent a regional or ethnic group, unlike the TDP (Telugu Desam Party) in Andhra Pradesh, the AGP (Assam Gana Parishad) in Assam, and the AIADMK (All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam) in Tamil Nadu, all of which have regional and ethnic bases in their respective states.
Question 70 of 75
70. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which two among the following did B. R. Ambedkar identify as critics of social reform in India?
Correct
The correct answer is 3. Political Reformers and Socialists
Incorrect
The correct answer is 3. Political Reformers and Socialists
Question 71 of 75
71. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following was a magazine started by Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa?
Correct
The correct answer is 3. Indian Opinion.
Mahatma Gandhi started Indian Opinion in 1903 in South Africa. The magazine played an important role in the Indian community’s struggle against discriminatory policies and helped promote his ideas of non-violence and civil rights.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 3. Indian Opinion.
Mahatma Gandhi started Indian Opinion in 1903 in South Africa. The magazine played an important role in the Indian community’s struggle against discriminatory policies and helped promote his ideas of non-violence and civil rights.
Question 72 of 75
72. Question
Category: CUET PG
The Guild Socialist theory
Correct
The correct answer is 1. Advocates industrial democracy.
The Guild Socialist theory emphasizes the establishment of industrial democracy, where workers’ councils (or guilds) manage industries and have control over production. It advocates for a system where workers have more control over the economic processes and decisions within their workplaces.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 1. Advocates industrial democracy.
The Guild Socialist theory emphasizes the establishment of industrial democracy, where workers’ councils (or guilds) manage industries and have control over production. It advocates for a system where workers have more control over the economic processes and decisions within their workplaces.
Question 73 of 75
73. Question
Category: CUET PG
An example of direct democracy is
Correct
The correct answer is 3. Athenian type.
The Athenian type of direct democracy refers to the democratic system practiced in ancient Athens, where citizens directly participated in decision-making, such as voting on laws and policies, without intermediaries like elected representatives.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 3. Athenian type.
The Athenian type of direct democracy refers to the democratic system practiced in ancient Athens, where citizens directly participated in decision-making, such as voting on laws and policies, without intermediaries like elected representatives.
Question 74 of 75
74. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following is not a principle of Utilitarianism?
Correct
The correct answer is 3. State is a natural necessity.
This is not a principle of Utilitarianism. Utilitarianism, primarily associated with philosophers like Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill, focuses on maximizing happiness and minimizing suffering. The key principles are:
Greatest good of the greatest number,
Maximum happiness of maximum number.
The idea that “government is a necessary evil” is more closely associated with certain political thinkers like Thomas Paine. “State is a natural necessity” doesn’t align with the utilitarian perspective, which emphasizes utility, not necessarily a natural or inherent need for the state.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 3. State is a natural necessity.
This is not a principle of Utilitarianism. Utilitarianism, primarily associated with philosophers like Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill, focuses on maximizing happiness and minimizing suffering. The key principles are:
Greatest good of the greatest number,
Maximum happiness of maximum number.
The idea that “government is a necessary evil” is more closely associated with certain political thinkers like Thomas Paine. “State is a natural necessity” doesn’t align with the utilitarian perspective, which emphasizes utility, not necessarily a natural or inherent need for the state.
Question 75 of 75
75. Question
Category: CUET PG
Which among the following is not a part of the central theme of green ideology?
Correct
The correct answer is 2. From being to having.
“From being to having” is not a part of the central theme of green ideology. Green ideology focuses on the following key principles:
Holism: Emphasizes the interconnection of all living beings and the environment.
Ecology: Focuses on the relationship between organisms and their environment.
Sustainability: Aims to meet present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs.
“From being to having” is more associated with materialistic or consumerist ideologies that prioritize material possession over spiritual or holistic well-being.
Incorrect
The correct answer is 2. From being to having.
“From being to having” is not a part of the central theme of green ideology. Green ideology focuses on the following key principles:
Holism: Emphasizes the interconnection of all living beings and the environment.
Ecology: Focuses on the relationship between organisms and their environment.
Sustainability: Aims to meet present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs.
“From being to having” is more associated with materialistic or consumerist ideologies that prioritize material possession over spiritual or holistic well-being.