Correct Answer: (1) 292 members from British Provinces, 4 from Chief Commissioners’ Provinces, and 93 from Princely States
Explanation:
The total membership of the Constituent Assembly was 389 before Partition:
British Provinces – 292
Chief Commissioners’ Provinces – 4
Princely States – 93

Ans. The correct answer is (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Explanations: The committees and their respective years of formation are:
A. C.H. Hanumantha Rao Committee: 1984 [II]
B. G.V.K. Rao Committee: 1985 [IV]
C. Ashok Mehta Committee: 1978 [I]
D. L.M. Singhvi Committee: 1986 [III]

Ans. (1) ASEAN
Explanation:
The term refers to the rapid industrialization and economic dynamism of Southeast Asian economies, linked to regional production networks.

Ans (4) North Korea
Explanations: ASEAN members include:
Indonesia, Malaysia, Thailand, Singapore, Philippines, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Myanmar, Brunei and East Timor.

Ans. (3) San Francisco
Explanation:
The United Nations Conference on International Organization was held in San Francisco
Date: 26 June 1945
50 countries participated
UN officially came into existence on 24 October 1945

Answer: (2) Myanmar
Explanation:
SAARC members:
India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Maldives, Afghanistan.

Answer: (1) Bernard Baruch
Explanation:
Bernard Baruch used the term in 1947
Described the ideological and strategic rivalry between the USA and USSR
The term was later popularized by Walter Lippmann

Answer: (2) (I), (II) and (IV)
Explanation:
According to Hans J. Morgenthau:
✔ Politics is governed by objective laws rooted in human nature
✔ Self-interest is fundamental
✔ National interest defined in terms of power
❌ Coercion is not the sole tool of foreign policy; diplomacy and prudence are equally important

Answer: (2) Ernst Haeckel
Explanation:
Coined in 1866
Derived from Greek oikos (house) + logos (study)
Defined as the study of relationships between organisms and environment

Answer: (2) John Rawls
Explanation:
This line comes from A Theory of Justice (1971).
Rawls argues:
Justice has priority over efficiency
Institutions must be judged by fairness, not outcomes alone

Answer: (1) Thomas Pogge
Explanation:
Pogge argues:
Global institutions cause structural injustice
Poverty is not accidental but institutionally produced
Rich countries have negative duties toward the poor

Answer: (1) Separation of ethics and religion from politics
Explanation:
Niccolò Machiavelli:
Treated politics as autonomous
Focused on power, realism, and statecraft
Rejected medieval moral theology

Answer: (2) Hobbes
Explanation: (Thomas Hobbes)
From Leviathan (1651):
Describes the state of nature
Absence of authority leads to chaos
Justifies absolute sovereignty

Ans: (a)

Ans: (c)

Ans: (d)

Correct: (1) Article 21A
Explanations: The 42nd Amendment (1976) inserted Articles 39A, 43A and 48A relating to legal aid, workers’ participation, and environment.
Article 21A (Right to Education) was added much later by the 86th Amendment in 2002.
Therefore, Article 21A is the one not inserted by the 42nd Amendment.

Correct: (4) 7th Amendment Act, 1956
Explanations: Initially, the Constitution classified states into Categories A, B, and C.
These categories were abolished during the 1956 States Reorganisation, creating linguistic states.
This was done through the 7th Constitutional Amendment (1956).

Correct: (3) 26th Amendment Act, 1971
Explanations: Privy purses were payments given to rulers of princely states after integration.
They were abolished by the 26th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971.
It ended recognition of rulers and their privileges.

Correct: (4) Regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries
Explanations: The Constitution empowers Panchayats for preparing development plans and implementing social justice schemes.
Subjects like agriculture and extension appear in the 11th Schedule, which Panchayats handle.
But regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries is a municipal/urban function under the 12th Schedule, not Panchayats.

Correct: (4) Both Houses of Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill.
Explanations: A Money Bill deals with subjects under Article 110, must be certified by the Speaker, and must originate in Lok Sabha.
Rajya Sabha can only recommend, not amend or reject, so powers are not equal.
Therefore, the statement about equal powers is incorrect.

Correct: (3) James Manor
Explanations: James Manor studied Indian party politics deeply.
He explained the evolution of India’s party system in terms of democratization and decay.
The concept refers to mass participation increasing but party organization weakening.

Correct: (4) Ronald Dworkin
Explanations: Luck egalitarianism argues inequalities are acceptable only if they arise from choices, not circumstances.
Ronald Dworkin is the key figure associated with formulating this idea.
It influenced later work by Cohen and others.

Correct: (1) John Locke
John Locke wrote Essay on Toleration advocating religious freedom and limited state interference.
It laid foundations of liberal tolerance theory.
Locke argued that coercion cannot change beliefs.

Correct: (4) A.K. Ayyar
Explanations: In the Constituent Assembly, some feared judicial independence becoming excessive.
A.K. Ayyar stated that judicial independence should not become a dogma, turning judiciary into a super-legislature or super-executive.
He argued for balance between branches.

Correct: (2) Ronald Dworkin
Explanations: Ronald Dworkin proposed Resource Egalitarianism, judging equality based on distribution of resources rather than welfare.
He used the “auction” and “insurance” models to explain fair distribution.
His work is central to contemporary egalitarian thought.

Correct: (1) Alexis de Tocqueville
Explanations: Alexis de Tocqueville observed American democracy and warned about the “tyranny of the majority.”
He argued that majority opinion can suppress minority rights in democratic systems.
His concern shaped liberal democratic theory.

Correct: (2) Aldous Huxley
Explanations: Aldous Huxley made the statement about liberty requiring self-governing citizens.
He emphasized that democratic freedom demands competence, responsibility, and civic education.
This fits his broader critique of modern society and authoritarianism.

Correct: (2) T.H. Marshall
Explanations: T.H. Marshall defined citizenship as full and equal membership in a political community.
He distinguished between civil, political, and social rights.
His theory influenced modern welfare state concepts.

Correct: (3) Robert Nozick
Explanations: Robert Nozick developed the Entitlement Theory of Justice in his book Anarchy, State, and Utopia.
He argued justice depends on just acquisition and voluntary transfer of holdings.
He opposed patterned redistributive theories like Rawls’.

Correct: (2) A Social Contractarian
Explanations: John Rawls wrote A Theory of Justice, grounded in a social contract framework.
He proposed principles chosen behind a veil of ignorance.
Thus, he is mainly categorized as a social contractarian.

Correct: (1) Destutt de Tracy
Explanations: The term “ideology” was coined by Destutt de Tracy during the French Revolution era.
He intended it as a “science of ideas”.
Later Marx used it critically in his writings.

Correct: (2) Aristotle
Explanations: Nicomachean Ethics is Aristotle’s major work on virtues, ethics, and the “good life.”
He introduced concepts like the golden mean.
It remains foundational in moral philosophy.

Correct: (3) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanations: Mahatma Gandhi used the idea of an “Oceanic Circle” in Hind Swaraj.
It envisioned decentralized, non-hierarchical political organization.
Each village would be self-sufficient yet interconnected.

Correct: (2) B.R. Ambedkar
Explanations: Who Were the Shudras? was written by B.R. Ambedkar.
It examined caste origins and challenged orthodox social history.
It is a key text in anti-caste scholarship.

Correct: (2) John Rawls
Explanations: The Original Position is John Rawls’ hypothetical situation to choose just principles.
People decide rules behind a veil of ignorance, unaware of their status.
This ensures fairness and equality.

Correct: (2) Thomas Hobbes
Explanations: Leviathan was written by Thomas Hobbes in 1651.
He argued for an absolute sovereign to prevent anarchy in the state of nature.
It established modern social contract theory.

Correct: (2) David Easton
Explanations: David Easton defined politics as the authoritative allocation of values.
He emphasized the functioning of political systems through inputs and outputs.
His approach shifted political science toward behavioralism.

Correct: (1) J.S. Mill
Explanations: J.S. Mill is called a reluctant democrat because he supported democracy but feared uninformed majority rule.
He advocated weighted voting and education to prevent mediocrity.
Thus his support was cautious, not enthusiastic.

Correct: (1) The Modern State
Explanations: Robert Morrison MacIver wrote The Modern State.
The other works listed (Leviathan, The Modern Prince, Homo Sacer) belong to Hobbes, Gramsci, and Agamben.
So only option (a) matches.

Correct: (1) The nature of the state in capitalism
Explanations: This debate focused on the nature of the capitalist state.
Miliband saw the state as controlled by ruling-class elites; Poulantzas saw structural constraints.
It became central to Marxist political theory.

Correct: (1) Plato
Explanations: Plato’s theory of Forms (Ideas) explains reality through perfect abstract Forms.
Physical things are imperfect copies of ideal Forms.
This is central to his metaphysics.

Correct: (2) Anarchism
Explanations: Anarchism argues for a society without state, coercion or hierarchical authority.
It emphasizes voluntary cooperation and self-regulation.
Hence it advocates the absence of government.

Correct: (4) All of the Above
Explanations: Marx was shaped by German Idealism (Hegel), French Socialism, and British Political Economy (Smith, Ricardo).
These three streams influenced his materialism and critique of capitalism.
Hence, all the above are correct.

Correct: (4) Non-Attachment
Explanations: For Gandhi, Anasakti meant acting without attachment to the fruits of action.
It stems from the Bhagavad Gita’s spiritual discipline.
It guided his ethics of service and simplicity.

Correct: (1) B.R. Ambedkar
Explanations: B.R. Ambedkar described Indian caste as graded inequality, meaning hierarchical stratification across castes, not just binary oppression.
Each caste dominates one and is dominated by another, creating vertical social layers.
This concept explains the rigidity of caste order.

Correct: (4) Rudolph and Rudolph
Explanations: Rudolph and Rudolph coined the term Bullock Capitalism.
It described rural agricultural capitalism relying on bullocks rather than modern machinery.
It helped explain India’s agrarian political economy.

Correct: (1) The UK Constitution
Explanations: Parliamentary sovereignty means Parliament is supreme and cannot be overruled by courts.
This principle is central to the UK Constitution, not Indian or US systems.
India follows constitutional supremacy; US follows judicial supremacy.

Correct: (3) A is correct, but R is not correct.
Explanations: Sartori analyzed multi-party systems, so the Assertion is correct.
But the Reason wrongly attributes a classification — those types (caucus, branch, cell, militia) were given by Duverger, not Sartori.
So Reason is incorrect.

Correct: (1) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanations: Plato believed the State is the individual writ large, meaning virtues of individuals scale to society.
He argued wisdom, courage, and temperance correspond to rulers, guardians, producers.
Thus Reason correctly explains Assertion.

Correct: (2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
Explanations: Gandhi supported Panchayats as grassroots self-rule institutions.
Ambedkar criticized traditional Panchayats as oppressive to lower castes.
Both statements are correct but Ambedkar’s criticism does not “explain” Gandhi’s support.

Correct: (1) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Explanations: Robert Nozick, in Anarchy, State and Utopia, defends negative liberty meaning freedom from interference.
He argues that the main threat to liberty is when the state forces obligations on individuals without consent.
So both A and R describe Nozick correctly, and R explains A well.
Hence option (1) is correct.

Correct: (3) A is correct, but R is not correct.
Explanations: Panchsheel (1954) are five core principles of India’s foreign policy like mutual respect, non-interference, peaceful coexistence etc.
The assertion is correct because Panchsheel is indeed foundational to Indian foreign policy.
But “providing equal space” is not one of the five principles, so R is wrong.
So A is correct but R is not → option (3).

Correct: (3) A is correct, but R is not correct.
Explanations: A Governor may reserve a state bill for President’s assent — this is a discretionary power, so A is correct.
But this power has nothing to do with Article 156, which deals with tenure of Governor.
So R is irrelevant/incorrect.
Therefore option (3) is correct.

Answer: (4) Statement I, II, and III are correct.
Explanations: US hegemony means dominance in military, economic, and political spheres (I correct).
After 1991 Soviet collapse, US emerged as the sole superpower (II correct).
China’s rise challenges US dominance (III correct).
IV is debatable and not universally true, so the correct set is I, II, III → option (4).

Answer: (1) Protecting the forests and the environment.
Explanations: Chipko started in Uttarakhand in the 1970s where villagers hugged trees to prevent their cutting.
It mainly focused on forest protection and environmental conservation.
It became a major environmental movement in India.
So the correct answer is (1).

Answer: (3) Protecting the environment and the river Narmada.
Explanations: NBA began in the 1980s against large dams on the Narmada River.
It aimed to protect the environment, river ecosystem, and rights of displaced people.
It became a major environmental and social justice movement.
Correct option is (3).

Answer: (3) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD).
Explanations: IMF & World Bank deal with finance/development loans.
WHO deals with global health.
OECD works to promote economic cooperation and development among advanced economies.
So answer is (3).

Answer: (4) Russia
Explanations: Permanent members are US, UK, France, China, Russia.
Germany, India, Japan are not permanent members.
Hence only Russia fits.
Correct answer: (4).

Answer: (3) To monitor nuclear weapon tests around the world.
CTBTO is linked to the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty.
Its purpose is monitoring nuclear tests worldwide through a global verification network.
It does not disarm nukes or stop proliferation directly.
Correct answer: (3).

Answer: (2) World Bank
Explanations: IMF solves short-term balance of payments crises.
World Bank gives long-term loans & projects to reduce poverty and boost development.
UNDP runs development programs but not loans for infrastructure.
Correct answer: (2).

Answer: (2) I, III and IV
Explanations: I – True (President can be re-elected unlimited times).
II – False (President cannot be a member of Parliament).
III – True (VP elected by both Houses of Parliament).
IV – True (VP is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha).
So correct set: I, III, IV.

Correct answer: (1) Fred Riggs
Explanations: Fred Riggs developed the ecological approach connecting administration with socio-cultural context.
He studied how environment shapes bureaucracy and administrative systems.
His famous models include prismatic, fused, and diffracted societies.

Answer: (1) RCEP
Explanations: India quit RCEP negotiations in 2019 due to concerns on trade deficits and China.
India is a member of WTO, is part of Partial Test Ban Treaty (PTBT) indirectly, and QUAD with US-Japan-Australia.
So the only one India is not part of is RCEP.
Correct answer: (1).

The correct answer is: 4. China, Bhutan, and India.

Explanation:

The Doklam issue refers to a territorial dispute between China and Bhutan, with India involved as a third party. The conflict arose in 2017 when Chinese troops began constructing a road in the Doklam plateau, a region claimed by both China and Bhutan.

India intervened because the plateau is close to the Siliguri Corridor (or “Chicken’s Neck”), a strategic narrow strip of land connecting mainland India to its northeastern states. India supported Bhutan’s claims and opposed China’s road construction due to its security concerns.

Thus, the dispute primarily involves China, Bhutan, and India.

The correct answer is: 2. Israel and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).

Explanation:

In 2020, under the initiative of the United States, Israel and the UAE signed the Abraham Accords, a historic peace agreement that normalized diplomatic relations between the two countries. This was a significant step in fostering peace and cooperation in the Middle East.

Additionally, Bahrain also joined the Abraham Accords later. These agreements marked a shift in the geopolitical dynamics of the region, promoting trade, tourism, and other forms of collaboration between Israel and Arab nations.

The other options:

• 1. Israel and Iran: No peace agreement exists between Israel and Iran. They remain adversaries.
• 3. Saudi Arabia and Israel: While there have been informal contacts, no official peace agreement has been signed.
• 4. Israel and Egypt: The peace agreement between Israel and Egypt was signed in 1979, not 2020.

The correct answer is: 2. It advocates equal respect and equal treatment of all religions.

Explanation:

Dharmanirpeksheta is a term that refers to the concept of religious neutrality or religion-neutrality. It was advocated by Mahatma Gandhi and is an important principle in the Indian context, particularly in relation to the state’s role in religion.

• Option 1: It advocates an areligious society.
  This is incorrect. Dharmanirpeksheta does not mean an absence of religion. It emphasizes religious tolerance and equal respect for all religions, but it does not advocate for a society without religion.
• Option 2: It advocates equal respect and equal treatment of all religions.
  This is correct. Dharmanirpeksheta promotes the idea that the state or society should respect and treat all religions equally, without favoring one over the other.
• Option 3: It advocates non-discrimination on the basis of religion.
  This is partially correct, as dharmanirpeksheta does promote non-discrimination based on religion, but it is more about equal respect and treatment of all religions, rather than simply non-discrimination.
• Option 4: It advocates the merger of religion and politics.
  This is incorrect. Dharmanirpeksheta does not advocate the merger of religion and politics but calls for the separation of religious identity from political governance, ensuring that the state does not favor any particular religion.

Thus, Option 2 most accurately reflects the essence of dharmanirpeksheta.

The correct answer is: 1. The bill requires the prior approval of the President of India and consultation of the state(s) being affected.

Explanation:

The State Reorganization Bill in India, which deals with the creation, alteration, or reorganization of states, requires:

• Prior approval of the President of India (as per Article 3 of the Constitution).
• Consultation with the state(s) being affected (though not necessarily consent, the views of the affected states are sought).

This process ensures that any changes to state boundaries or governance are done with the involvement of the President and consultations with the relevant states.

The other options are incorrect:

• 2: The bill requires both presidential approval and consultation, not just the prior approval of the President.
• 3: It is not merely about consultation; presidential approval is also required.
• 4: The bill does not require a two-thirds majority of either house of Parliament to pass; it requires a simple majority.

The correct answer is: 1. A person cannot be punished twice for committing the same crime.

Explanation:

Double jeopardy is a legal principle that protects an individual from being tried or punished more than once for the same offense. In the context of India’s penal system, this principle is enshrined under Article 20(2) of the Indian Constitution, which states:

• “No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.”

This means that once a person has been acquitted or convicted for a particular crime, they cannot be tried or punished again for the same crime.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• Option 2: This is incorrect because the principle of double jeopardy specifically prevents being punished twice for the same crime.
• Option 3: This is incorrect as it violates the principle of double jeopardy; a person cannot be tried twice for the same offense once they have been acquitted or convicted.
• Option 4: This is incorrect as the law does not allow multiple punishments for the same offense.

The correct answer is: 2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can hear and decide on writ petitions.

Explanation:

Under Article 32 and Article 226 of the Indian Constitution:

• Article 32 gives the Supreme Court the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
• Article 226 gives High Courts the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights or for any other purpose within their jurisdiction.

Thus, both the Supreme Court and High Courts have the jurisdiction to hear writ petitions.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• Option 1: This is incorrect because both the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power to hear writ petitions.
• Option 3: Administrative Tribunals can adjudicate matters related to administrative issues, but they do not have the power to issue writs like the Supreme Court or High Courts.
• Option 4: Military Courts do not have the authority to hear and decide on writ petitions. Only the Supreme Court and High Courts have this power.

The correct answer is: 2. UK

Explanation:

The statement “Constitution is what the Parliament enacts” is most valid in the case of the United Kingdom (UK). The UK has an unwritten constitution (or an uncodified constitution), meaning its constitution is formed by statutes (laws passed by Parliament), conventions, judicial decisions, and other sources. In the UK, Parliament has the supreme power to make or amend laws, including constitutional laws, which means that the constitution can be changed by ordinary legislation enacted by Parliament.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• 1. USA: The US has a written constitution (the Constitution of the United States), which is a supreme document that can only be amended through a formal process, not by ordinary legislation enacted by Congress.
• 3. India: India’s constitution is a written document that cannot be altered by ordinary parliamentary legislation. Amendments are possible, but they require a special process as per Article 368 of the Indian Constitution.
• 4. France: France also has a written constitution (the Constitution of the Fifth Republic), which cannot be changed by ordinary legislation and requires a special procedure for amendments.

Thus, the idea that Parliament enacts the constitution is most applicable to the UK.

The correct answer is: 1. Old Institutionalism

Explanation:

Old Institutionalism in political science focuses on the formal structures of political institutions (like legislatures, executives, and courts) and their roles within political systems. The features you mentioned — legalism, structuralism, and normative analysis — are central to Old Institutionalism. It emphasizes the study of institutions as fixed entities and often relies on legal and structural frameworks to understand political processes, along with a normative approach to assessing the role of these institutions in society.

Why the other options are incorrect:

• 2. Discourse analysis: This method focuses on understanding the meanings and implications of language in political discourse and does not primarily focus on legalism, structuralism, or normative analysis.
• 3. Behaviorism: Behavioralism in political science is focused on the study of individuals’ behavior and attitudes, using empirical data and scientific methods. It emphasizes analysis based on human actions rather than legal or structural considerations.
• 4. Rational Choice Perspective: This approach in political science focuses on decision-making by individuals or groups based on cost-benefit analysis and self-interest. It doesn’t primarily involve legalism, structuralism, or normative analysis.

Thus, Old Institutionalism is the correct answer.