Answer: 4) Bernard Crick
Explanation: Bernard Crick wrote In Defence of Politics (1962), arguing that politics is a necessary and noble activity essential for democracy.

Answer: 4) Institutionalism
Explanation: Institutionalism focuses on legal and historical analysis, descriptive and comparative methods, and the role of institutions and interest groups in politics.

Answer: 3) III, II, IV, I
Explanation: The correct chronological order of Marx’s writings is:
Theses on Feuerbach (1845)
The Poverty of Philosophy (1847)
The Communist Manifesto (1848)
A Contribution to the Critique of Political Economy (1859)

Correct answer is 3) I, II, and IV.
Explanation:
Muhammad Iqbal’s notable works include:
Tarana-e-Hind – A patriotic poem written in 1904.
The Reconstruction of Religious Thought in Islam – A series of lectures on Islamic philosophy.
Bang-e-Dara – A collection of Urdu poetry published in 1924.
“Historical Role of Islam” is not a widely recognized work by Iqbal, so option 3 (I, II, and IV) is correct.

Answer: 2) Hobbes
Explanation: Thomas Hobbes believed that all existence is composed of matter in motion, emphasizing a materialistic and mechanistic view of the universe.

Answer: 1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Explanation:
John Locke → Consent Theory (II) → Advocated government based on the consent of the governed.
Hobbes → Absolute Sovereignty (IV) → Supported a strong, absolute sovereign to prevent anarchy.
Jaya Prakash Narayan → Partyless Democracy (I) → Proposed a system without political parties for true democracy.
Robert Nozick → Neo-liberalism (III) → A libertarian thinker who emphasized minimal state intervention in his book Anarchy, State, and Utopia.

Answer: 2) Wealth
Explanation: The economic dimension of power is primarily derived from wealth, as it provides resources, influence, and the ability to shape economic and political decisions.

Answer: 3) Ebenstein
Explanation: William Ebenstein argued that imperialism is a chief distortion of nationalism, as it extends national power beyond its legitimate boundaries, often leading to domination and exploitation.

Answer: 4) Mandate
Explanation: A closed-door policy restricts foreign influence through measures like tariffs, shipping regulations, and concessions. A mandate, however, refers to a system where a country administers a territory on behalf of an international body (e.g., League of Nations mandates), which is not a restrictive trade policy.

Answer: 4) J. S. Mill
Explanation: John Stuart Mill argued that some pleasures are of a higher quality than others, distinguishing between higher (intellectual) and lower (bodily) pleasures, unlike Bentham’s purely quantitative utilitarianism.

Answer: 1) One has horizontal jurisdictions while the other has not.
Explanation:
The state is permanent and has sovereignty over a defined territory.
The government is temporary and exercises authority within the state.
The government operates within a horizontal jurisdiction (divided into branches like executive, legislature, and judiciary), whereas the state encompasses all aspects of governance.

Correct answer is: 4) James Bryce
Explanation: James Bryce defined a nation as a nationality that has organized itself into a political body desiring to be independent, highlighting the transition from a cultural or ethnic group (nationality) to a sovereign political entity (nation).

Correct answer is: 3) Nation

Correct answer is: 2) Woodrow Wilson
Explanation: Woodrow Wilson defined the state as “a people organized for law within a definite territory,” emphasizing the legal and territorial organization of a political community.

Correct answer is: 2) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III

Answer: 3) David Easton
Explanation: David Easton emphasized the importance of integrating theory and empirical research, stating that “Research untutored by theory may prove trivial, and theory unsupported by data, futile.” This reflects his commitment to a systematic and scientific approach in political science.

Answer: 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: Francis Fukuyama argued in The End of History and the Last Man that liberal democracy represents the final stage of ideological evolution, as earlier forms of government contained defects and irrationalities that led to their decline. Thus, (R) correctly explains (A).

Answer: 3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Explanation: Plato’s theory of ideas (Forms) is indeed based on his theory of knowledge (Epistemology), as he distinguished between the world of Forms (true knowledge) and the world of appearances (mere opinion).
However, the statement “knowledge is perception” reflects Protagoras’ relativism, not Plato’s view. Plato rejected the idea that knowledge is mere perception, arguing instead that true knowledge is intellectual and comes from understanding the eternal Forms.
Thus, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Correct answer is: 2. G.H. Sabine
Explanation: G.H. Sabine emphasized that Aristotle’s political science was not only empirical and descriptive but also, in some respects, independent of ethical purposes. He argued that Aristotle believed a statesman needed to understand governance even in flawed or bad states, making his approach practical rather than purely moralistic.

Answer: 4) Stratification
Explanation:
David Easton’s intellectual foundation stones of behaviouralism include:
Regularities → Identifying patterns in political behavior.
Values → Avoiding explicit value judgments in research.
Pure Science → Aiming for objective, scientific study.
Stratification (social hierarchy) is not a part of Easton’s behaviouralism. Instead, behaviouralism focuses on empirical methods and patterns in political behavior.

Answer: 4) Oligarchy and Aristocracy
Explanation: The political elite refers to a small, privileged group that holds power and influence in politics. Oligarchy (rule by a few) and Aristocracy (rule by a noble class) are both elite-dominated systems where political decisions are made by a select few, distinguishing them from the broader population.

Answer: 2) Arthur Bentley
Explanation: Arthur Bentley is associated with the early development of comparative politics, particularly through his work The Process of Government (1908), which emphasized group politics and behavioral analysis. His ideas later influenced the behavioral revolution in political science.

Answer: 4) (d) only
Explanation:
John Locke believed that property is a natural right, along with life and liberty. He argued that individuals have a right to own property through their labor.
The other statements (a), (b), and (c) are true:
(a) The state must be a constitutional state → True, as Locke advocated for limited government based on constitutional principles.
(b) Government must possess discretionary power → True, as Locke allowed some prerogative powers for rulers in exceptional circumstances.
(c) It is a tolerant state → True, as Locke supported religious tolerance (except for atheists and Catholics).
Thus, (d) is false, making option 4 the correct answer.

Answer: 4) (d) only
Explanation:
For Rousseau, the following statements are true:
(a) Two original instincts, i.e., self-love and sympathy, make up man’s nature. → True, as Rousseau believed in amour de soi (self-love) and pitié (sympathy) as fundamental natural instincts.
(b) A thinking man is a depraved animal. → True, as Rousseau argued that civilization corrupts natural human goodness.
(c) Family is the only natural society. → True, Rousseau stated that the family is the first and only natural form of society, with all others being artificial.
However, (d) General will is not a group mind is false because Rousseau’s General Will represents the collective will of the people, not just individual opinions, making it somewhat like a group mind.

Thus, the correct answer is 4. (d) only.

Answer: 4) (a), (b), (c), and (d)
Explanation:
Since the mid-1950s, comparative politics has evolved with several major theoretical approaches:

(a) Systems Theories → David Easton and Gabriel Almond introduced political system analysis to study inputs, outputs, and feedback in political structures.
(b) Culture Theories → Political culture studies (e.g., Almond & Verba’s The Civic Culture) emphasized the role of beliefs, values, and attitudes in politics.
(c) Development Theories → Modernization and dependency theories analyzed political and economic development, particularly in post-colonial states.
(d) Class Theories → Marxist analysis influenced the study of power, class struggle, and political structures.
Since all four approaches have been significant, the correct answer is 4) (a), (b), (c), and (d).

Answer: 1) Political socialization
Explanation: Political socialization refers to the process by which individuals acquire political attitudes, beliefs, and values, both through formal (education, institutions) and informal (family, media, peer groups) mechanisms. It plays a crucial role in shaping political culture and participation.

Correct answer is: 1) (a) and (d) (R.R. Rostow and Max Weber)
Explanation:
R.R. Rostow linked political development with economic and administrative progress, emphasizing stages of development.
Max Weber viewed administrative and legal development as essential for a modern state, particularly through bureaucracy and rational-legal authority.
Thus, R.R. Rostow and Max Weber both argued that political development is tied to administrative and legal development.

Answer: 4) (d) only
Explanation:
For J.S. Mill, the following statements are true:
(a) Pleasures differ in quality as well as in quantity. → True, as Mill distinguished between higher and lower pleasures, unlike Bentham, who focused only on quantity.
(b) Mill makes use of the non-utilitarian arguments. → True, Mill incorporated elements of liberalism, individual rights, and moral considerations, going beyond pure utilitarianism.
(c) The felicific calculus is absurd. → True, Mill criticized Bentham’s felicific calculus, arguing that pleasures are not purely mathematical.
However, (d) Pleasures can be objectively measured is false, because Mill emphasized that pleasure is subjective and varies based on intellectual and moral development.
Thus, the correct answer is 4) (d) only.

Answer: 1) (d), (b), (c), (a)
Chronological Order of Amartya Sen’s Works:
Choice, Welfare and Measurement (1982)
Inequality Re-examined (1992)
Development as Freedom (1999)
The Idea of Justice (2009)
Thus, the correct sequence is (d), (b), (c), (a) → Option 1.

Answer: 2) David Easton
Explanation:
David Easton, in his systems theory of politics, made a distinction between:
System Maintenance → The ability of a political system to sustain itself despite external pressures.
System Persistence → The ability of a political system to adapt and survive over time, even if its structures and functions change.
Thus, the correct answer is David Easton (Option 2).

Answer: 4) Robert Walpole
Explanation:
Robert Walpole is considered the first-ever Prime Minister in a parliamentary government. He served as Britain’s de facto Prime Minister from 1721 to 1742, consolidating power and setting the precedent for the modern office of the Prime Minister.

Answer: 2) (b) Herman Finer and (d) Carl Friedrich
Explanation:
The Institutional Approach in political science focuses on the structures, functions, and roles of political institutions like the state, government, and bureaucracy.
Herman Finer → Known for his work on constitutionalism and public administration.
Carl Friedrich → Emphasized the role of institutions in shaping political behavior and governance.
Thus, the correct answer is (b) and (d).

Answer: 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
Giuseppe Mazzini (Italian nationalist) and Sri Aurobindo (Indian nationalist and philosopher) shared similar ideas on nationalism, spirituality, and morality in politics.
Both believed that faith in God was the basis of morality, and that politics should be guided by moral and ethical principles.
Their ideas emphasized nationalism, self-sacrifice, and the role of divine will in shaping human destiny.
Thus, (A) and (R) are both true, and (R) correctly explains (A) → Option 1.

Correct answer is 2. iii, ii, i, and iv.
Correct Sequence of General Systems Theory in Social Sciences:
Anthropology → Early adoption to study cultural systems and societal evolution.
Sociology → Used to explain social structures, institutions, and interactions (e.g., Talcott Parsons).
Psychology → Applied to cognitive processes and behavior analysis (e.g., Gestalt psychology).
Political Science → Adopted for political system analysis, notably by David Easton.
Thus, the correct sequence is iii, ii, i, and iv → Option 2.

Answer: 2) India
Explanation:
The statement “We are under the Constitution, but the Constitution is what the judges say it is” reflects the principle of judicial supremacy in interpreting the Constitution.
This principle is most famously associated with the United States, where the Supreme Court has the final authority in constitutional interpretation (as established in Marbury v. Madison, 1803).
In India, the Supreme Court also holds the power of judicial review and has the final say in interpreting the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973).
Thus, apart from the USA, this principle applies to India, making Option 2 (India) the correct answer.

Answer: 3) (d), (c), (a), (b)
Chronological Order of Revolutions:
Puritan Revolution (1642–1651) → Also called the English Civil War, it led to the temporary overthrow of the monarchy in England.
Bolshevik Revolution (1917) → Also known as the Russian Revolution, it led to the establishment of a communist government under Lenin.
Chinese Revolution (1949) → Led by Mao Zedong, it resulted in the establishment of the People’s Republic of China.
Cuban Revolution (1959) → Led by Fidel Castro, it overthrew the Batista regime and established a communist government in Cuba.
Thus, the correct sequence is (d), (c), (a), (b) → Option 3.

Answer: 3) (ii), (iv), (iii), and (i)

Correct Sequence of Input Functions (as per Almond & Powell’s Model):
1. Political Socialization and Recruitment (ii):
The process by which individuals acquire political values, beliefs, and behaviors.
Includes education, media, and family influence.

2. Interest Articulation (iv):
The process where individuals and groups express their demands and interests (e.g., protests, lobbying).

3. Interest Aggregation (iii):
The process of combining and prioritizing different interests into policy proposals (done by political parties and pressure groups).

4. Political Communication (i):
The transmission of political information between government, media, and the public.
Thus, the correct order is (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) → Option 3.

Answer: 4) Habermas
Explanation:
The term “legitimation crisis” was developed by Jürgen Habermas, a German philosopher and sociologist. He argued that modern capitalist states face crises when their public institutions lose legitimacy, leading to reliance on coercion rather than voluntary compliance.
This concept is discussed in his book “Legitimation Crisis” (1973), where he explains how economic, political, and social systems struggle to maintain legitimacy in the face of public dissatisfaction.

Answer: 3) It promotes trans-national security.
Explanation:
A constitution primarily governs a nation’s internal framework rather than focusing on trans-national security, which is the responsibility of international agreements, treaties, and organizations like the UN or NATO.
A constitution:
Safeguards political institutions (Option 1)
Defines the authority of government organs (Option 2)
Incorporates fundamental laws (Option 4)
Thus, Option 3 is incorrect because trans-national security is not a primary function of a constitution.

Answer: 1) Joseph de Maistre
Explanation:
Joseph de Maistre, a conservative political thinker, strongly believed in the principle of authority as essential for maintaining social order and stability. He argued that societies require a strong, unquestioned authority—often in the form of monarchy or religious institutions—to prevent chaos and disorder.
His ideas were a reaction against the French Revolution, emphasizing that reason alone cannot govern society and that authority, tradition, and religion are the pillars of a stable political system.

Answer: 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
The Iron Law of Oligarchy, proposed by Robert Michels, states that in any democratic organization, including political parties, decision-making ultimately falls into the hands of a small elite group rather than the majority. This happens because:
Organizations become complex, requiring specialized knowledge and expertise.
Mass participation is impractical, so leadership centralization occurs.
Leaders consolidate power over time, making democracy within the organization superficial.
Thus, the Reason (R) correctly explains Assertion (A) by highlighting that decision-making is necessarily controlled by a few due to its complexity.

Option 2: Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
The military is predominant in non-Western democracies due to factors like weak political institutions, authoritarian tendencies, and historical patterns of military intervention.
Social fragmentation and cleavages do contribute to political instability, but they are not the only or direct reason for military dominance. Other factors, such as colonial legacies, weak rule of law, and lack of democratic consolidation, also play a significant role.
Since (R) does not fully explain (A), Option 2 is correct.

Correct answer is 1. (a) and (b) – Pareto and Mosca.
Explanation:
Vilfredo Pareto and Gaetano Mosca were European thinkers who formulated the classical elite theory, arguing that societies are always ruled by a minority elite.
Joseph Schumpeter contributed to elite theory but focused more on democratic elitism rather than classical elite theory.
Harold Lasswell was an American political scientist and is not considered a core thinker in European elite theory.
Thus, option 1 is correct as Pareto and Mosca are the foundational figures of the European elite theory.

Correct answer is option 4: (d) James Coleman only.
Explanation:
James Coleman did not differentiate between interest groups and pressure groups, considering them as overlapping entities in political processes.
Other scholars, such as Jean Blondel, Myron Weiner, and Robert C. Bone, made distinctions between interest groups (which represent broader societal interests) and pressure groups (which actively influence government policies).
Thus, option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
Political development approach was criticized in the mid-1960s because it was largely Western-centric, assuming that the political evolution of developing countries would follow the same pattern as the U.S. and Western Europe.
The Reason (R) correctly explains this, as applying Western experiences to Third World nations proved inadequate due to different historical, cultural, and socio-economic conditions.
Thus, option 1 is correct.

The correct chronological order is: 4) Justice Party, Shiromani Akali Dal, Hindu Mahasabha, National Conference
Chronology of Formation:
Justice Party – 1916
Shiromani Akali Dal – 1920
Hindu Mahasabha – 1925
National Conference – 1932 (Originally as All Jammu and Kashmir Muslim Conference, renamed in 1939)
Thus, option 4 is correct.

Option 2 is correct because Article 156(2) does not explicitly mention the “dismissal” of a Governor by the President.
Explanation:
Article 156(2) states: “A Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.”
It does not explicitly mention that the President can dismiss the Governor, though Article 156(1) states that the Governor holds office “during the pleasure of the President,” implying that the President can remove a Governor at any time.
The Supreme Court in the B.P. Singhal case (2010) clarified that the President can remove a Governor without assigning a reason, but this removal cannot be arbitrary or capricious.
Thus, Option 2 is not correctly matched, making it the correct answer to the question.

Correct Answer: 2 (b) and (d)
Explanation:
Dependency theory, developed by thinkers like Andre Gunder Frank and Raúl Prebisch, argues that developed (core) countries exploit underdeveloped (peripheral) nations by keeping them in a state of dependency through economic, political, and social structures.

(b) Third world nations provide natural resources and cheap labour → Correct (Dependency theory argues that rich nations exploit poorer nations for resources and labor.)
(d) Advanced western nations perpetuate a state of dependency by various means → Correct (They do so through unequal trade, multinational corporations, and financial institutions like the IMF & World Bank.)
(a) Development of colonies is viewed as White Man’s Burden →  Incorrect (This is a colonial justification for imperialism, not a key contention of dependency theory.)
(c) Industrialization and market economy are conducive for development → Incorrect (Dependency theorists critique this notion, arguing that industrialization often benefits the core nations while harming the periphery.)
Thus, (b) and (d) are the correct answers.

Correct answer is 4 (c) only).
Explanation:
(a) Residuary powers belong to the Centre → Incorrect (True for India but false for the USA, where states hold residuary powers.)
(b) Residuary powers are with the States → Incorrect (True for the USA but false for India.)
(c) Presidents have the power of pocket veto → Correct (Both the Indian President and the US President have pocket veto power.)
(d) Upper houses have some nominated members → Incorrect (In India, the Rajya Sabha has nominated members, but in the USA, the Senate has no nominated members.)
Since only (c) is correct, the right answer is option 4.

The correct answer is 2 (a) and (b).
Explanation:
Foreigners living in India are entitled to certain Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution, but not all.
(a) Equality before law (Article 14) → Available to foreigners
(b) Right to education (Article 21A) → Available to foreigners
(c) Freedom of speech (Article 19(1)(a)) → Not available to foreigners (Only Indian citizens enjoy this right.)
(d) Freedom of movement (Article 19(1)(d)) → Not available to foreigners (Only Indian citizens can move freely within India.)
Since only (a) and (b) are available to foreigners, the correct answer is option 2.

Answer: 3. Both Statement I and II are true.

The correct answer is: Option 4: (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Explanation:
(a) 36th Constitutional Amendment Act (1975) → (ii) Declaration of Sikkim as a full-fledged state
This amendment made Sikkim the 22nd state of India by adding it to the First Schedule.
(b) 61st Constitutional Amendment Act (1988) → (iii) Lowering of voting age from 21 to 18 years
This amendment reduced the voting age for Lok Sabha and State Assembly elections from 21 to 18 years (Article 326).
(c) 97th Constitutional Amendment Act (2011) → (iv) Formation and functioning of cooperative societies
This amendment added “Cooperative Societies” in Part III (Fundamental Rights) under Article 19(1)(c) and Part IV (Directive Principles) under Article 43B.
(d) 99th Constitutional Amendment Act (2014) → (i) Transparency in judicial appointments
This amendment created the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) to replace the Collegium System, but it was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015.
Final Answer:
Option 4: (II) (III) (IV) (I)

Correct Answer: 3) Patronage Bureaucracy
Explanation:
Patronage bureaucracy is characterized by political favoritism, where appointments and promotions are based on loyalty to a political party rather than merit. It exhibits a bias toward party interests as bureaucrats owe their positions to political leaders and often work to serve their agendas.

Correct Answer: 3) Indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to be elected.
Explanation:
In a Single Transferable Vote (STV) system, voters rank candidates in order of preference. They can indicate as many preferences as there are candidates, though they are not required to rank all. This ensures that votes are transferred to other preferred candidates if the first choice is either elected with surplus votes or eliminated.

Correct Answer: 3) State Legislative Council
Explanation:
Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies can be dissolved after their term or by the executive.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and cannot be dissolved.
State Legislative Council (Upper House in some states) cannot be dissolved but can be abolished by Parliament under Article 169 of the Indian Constitution on the request of the concerned state’s Legislative Assembly.

Correct answer is Option 3: (A) III, (B) I, (C) II, (D) IV
Explanation:
Granville Austin → “Cooperative federalism” (III)
K.C. Wheare → “Quasi-federal” (I)
Appleby → “Federation with strong centralising tendency” (II)
Ivor Jennings → “Extremely federal” (IV)

Correct Answer: 1) (A) II, (B) III, (C) IV, (D) I
Explanation:
Government of India Act, 1858 → Transferred control from the East India Company to the British Crown under the Secretary of State for India.
Indian Councils Act, 1861 → Allowed the inclusion of non-official members in the Governor-General’s Executive Council for the first time.
Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) → Introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) → Introduced bicameralism in the Indian legislature.

Correct Answer: 1) (a), (b), and (c)
Explanation:
A presidential system of government, such as that in the United States, has the following characteristics:
(a) President is both Head of the State and Head of the Government. (True—The President holds executive power and leads the government directly.)
(b) It is based on separation of powers. (True—There is a clear distinction between the executive, legislative, and judicial branches.)
(c) President’s term of office is fixed. (True—Presidents serve a fixed term, e.g., four years in the U.S.)
(d) Secretaries are responsible to the President as well as to the Senate. (False—Secretaries (ministers) in a presidential system are accountable only to the President, not to the Senate.)
Thus, Option 1 (a, b, and c) is correct.

Correct Answer: 3) US Senate
Explanation:
The US Senate is known for its longest speeches due to the practice of filibustering, where senators speak for extended periods to delay or block legislation. Some of the longest speeches in history have taken place in the US Senate, including:

Strom Thurmond (1957) – Spoke for 24 hours and 18 minutes against the Civil Rights Act.
Alfonse D’Amato (1986) – Spoke for 23 hours and 30 minutes on a military bill.
Other legislative bodies like the House of Lords, Lok Sabha, and Swiss Council of States do not have a tradition of such lengthy speeches.

Thus, Option 3 (US Senate) is correct.

Correct Answer: 3) Three years
Explanation:
Under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, the President’s Rule in a state can initially be imposed for six months. However, it can be extended:

Up to one year with the approval of both houses of Parliament every six months.
Beyond one year, it can be extended further up to a maximum of three years if:
A National Emergency (Article 352) is in operation, or
The Election Commission certifies that elections cannot be conducted in the state.
Thus, the maximum period of President’s Rule in a state is 3 years.

Correct Answer: 3) The writ is a very powerful safeguard to the subject against arbitrary acts not only of private individuals but also of the executive.
Explanation:
The Writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to protect individual liberty against unlawful detention by the state or private individuals.
It commands the authority holding a person in custody to bring them before the court and justify their detention.
If the detention is found unlawful, the court orders the immediate release of the person.
Why the other options are incorrect?
Option 1: Habeas Corpus cannot be issued when a person is legally detained by a court on a criminal charge.
Option 2: It cannot interfere with contempt proceedings by courts or Parliament.
Option 4: The court can set the person free if the imprisonment is unlawful.

Correct Answer: 1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
The one-party dominance model, as described by Rajni Kothari, refers to a system where a single party (Indian National Congress) dominates electoral politics but allows the presence of opposition parties, unlike a one-party system where only one party is legally allowed.
From 1952 to 1967, Congress won successive elections at the national and state levels, maintaining exclusive control over government power.
This explains why the Reason (R) correctly supports and explains the Assertion (A).

Correct Answer: 1) (a), (b), and (d)
Explanation:
Both the Vice-Presidents of India and the U.S. are elected for a fixed term (5 years in India, 4 years in the U.S.).  (Statement a is correct.)
Both are the presiding officers of the upper house (Rajya Sabha in India, Senate in the U.S.).  (Statement b is correct.)
They do NOT appoint committees of their respective houses. In India, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not appoint committees, and in the U.S., Senate committees are determined by party leadership and internal rules.  (Statement c is incorrect.)
They have a casting vote in case of a tie (in the Rajya Sabha and U.S. Senate).  (Statement d is correct.)

Correct Answer: 2) They are formed on the basis of prior organization and planning.
Explanation:
Anomic interest groups are spontaneous, unstructured, and unpredictable. They emerge suddenly due to a crisis, grievance, or mass frustration.
They are spontaneous and not planned (Statement 1 is true).
They are NOT formed based on prior organization and planning; they arise in reaction to events (Statement 2 is false).
They may involve violent behavior or protests to express dissatisfaction (Statement 3 is true).
They are short-lived and disappear once their purpose is fulfilled (Statement 4 is true).
Thus, Statement 2 is incorrect, making it the right answer.

Correct Answer: 1) If Lok Sabha decides that a subject mentioned in the State List is of national importance.
Explanation:
Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List under specific conditions:
If Rajya Sabha (not Lok Sabha) passes a resolution under Article 249 stating that a subject in the State List is of national importance.
If two or more state legislatures pass a resolution (Article 252) requesting Parliament to legislate on a State List subject.
If a National Emergency (Article 250) is declared, Parliament gets the power to legislate on State List subjects.
If a treaty or international agreement (Article 253) requires implementation, Parliament can make laws on a State List subject.
Since Lok Sabha alone does not have this power, Option 1 is incorrect, making it the right answer.

Correct Answer: 3) III, II, IV, I
Chronological Order of Lok Sabha Speakers:
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy → (1967–1969)
Dr. Gurdial Singh Dhillon → (1969–1971, 1971–1975)
Bali Ram Bhagat → (1976–1977)
Dr. Balram Jakhar → (1980–1989)
Thus, the correct sequence is III → II → IV → I.

Answer: 1) Allahabad, Mumbai, Jabalpur
Explanation: These High Courts have benches:
Allahabad High Court (Bench in Lucknow)
Bombay High Court (Benches in Nagpur, Aurangabad, and Panaji)
Madhya Pradesh High Court (Benches in Indore and Gwalior)

Correct answer is 2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation: While both statements are true, (R) does not directly explain (A). Civilian control over the military in liberal democracies is a result of strong institutional frameworks, not just the military’s role in non-democratic countries.

The correct answer is: 3) (IV) – (III) – (II) – (I)
Explanation:
Robert Michels → “Iron Law of Oligarchy” (Power tends to concentrate in elite hands in any organization).
James Burnham → “Managerial Revolution” (Shift of power from capitalists to managers).
C. Wright Mills → “Power Elites” (Theory of elite dominance in politics, military, and economy).
Harold Lasswell → “Communication Model” (Focused on political communication and propaganda).

Correct Answer: Option 4: Section on International and Comparative Public Administration (SICA)
Explanation:
The Comparative Administration Group (CAG) of the American Society for Public Administration (ASPA) was later replaced by the Section on International and Comparative Public Administration (SICA) to continue research and discussions on global public administration.

Correct Answer: Option 1: Political Science of Public law
Explanation:
According to Peter Self, the study of Public Administration initially developed as an offshoot of Political Science and Public Law, focusing on the legal and structural aspects of governance before evolving into a broader field incorporating management and policy studies.

Correct Answer: Option 4: It gives more importance to informal relationship.
Explanation:
The traditional or mechanistic theory of organization focuses on formal structure, hierarchy, and strict rules, ignoring informal relationships. It assumes that workers are primarily motivated by economic incentives and emphasizes efficiency, discipline, and centralized control. Informal relationships are more associated with the human relations approach, which contrasts with mechanistic theories.

2) Ashok Mehta Committee
The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) was the first to recommend constitutional recognition for Panchayati Raj institutions, advocating for a two-tier system and direct elections at the district level.

The correct answer is: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
Federalism is not dead in India because India follows a federal structure with a division of powers between the Centre and the States. Despite some centralizing tendencies, the federal character remains intact.
New regions demanding statehood (e.g., Telangana, Gorkhaland, Bodoland) show regional aspirations but do not necessarily explain why federalism is still alive.
Federalism persists due to constitutional provisions, governance mechanisms, and decentralization, not just because of demands for new states. Hence, (R) is true but does not fully explain (A).

the correct answer is: (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true because both staff and auxiliary agencies assist line agencies but are distinct in their roles.
Reason (R) is false because auxiliary agencies do have operating responsibilities, such as handling personnel, accounting, and procurement functions.
Unlike staff agencies, which only provide advice, auxiliary agencies perform essential administrative tasks that keep the government running.
Thus, while (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.

The correct answer is: (2) Strict auditing
Explanation:
The OECD (Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development) identified key components of governance while setting conditions for economic assistance, including:
Participatory development (ensuring citizen involvement),
Human rights (protecting fundamental freedoms), and
Democratisation (promoting democratic institutions).
However, strict auditing was not explicitly listed as a governance criterion, though financial transparency is encouraged.

The correct answer is: (4) Science of control and communication
Explanation:
Cybernetics is the study of control and communication in machines, organisms, and organizations. It explores how systems self-regulate through feedback loops, a concept introduced by Norbert Wiener in 1948.

The correct answer is: (3) Mohini Jain v/s State of Karnataka: enjoyment of pollution-free water and air.
Explanation:
Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka (1992) dealt with the Right to Education as a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. It was about the capitation fee charged by private medical colleges.
The case related to pollution-free water and air is Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar (1991).

Option 3 is correct:
Varahagiri Venkata Giri → (II) July 1977 – July 1982
Dr. Zakir Hussain → (III) August 1969 – August 1974
R. Venkataraman → (IV) May 1967 – May 1969
Neelam Sanjiva Reddy → (I) July 1987 – July 1992

Answer: 4 (Reconsideration of objectives)
Austin Rammey’s elements of public policy include a set of objectives, a selected line of action, and an implementation of intent. However, reconsideration of objectives is not explicitly mentioned as an element.

Answer: 3 (Chester Barnard)
Chester Barnard emphasized effective communication as a fundamental requirement for achieving organizational goals in his work The Functions of the Executive.

Answer: 3 (Barry Bozeman)
Barry Bozeman proposed the “publicness” continuum, arguing that all organizations have both public and private characteristics, rather than a strict distinction between public and private administration.

2) 543   423   79     41

Correct Answer: 4) I and IV only
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights granted only to citizens of India include:
Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29 & 30) – Protects the rights of cultural and linguistic minorities.
Protection from discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (Article 15) – Ensures no discrimination in public spaces and government policies.
Whereas Equality before Law (Article 14) and Right against Exploitation (Article 23 & 24) are available to both citizens and non-citizens.

Correct Answer: 3) Taft Commission, Brownlow Committee, Hoover Commission, The Grace Commission.
Explanation:
The correct chronological order of these commissions/committees in the USA is:
Taft Commission (1901-1903) – Focused on administrative reforms in the Philippines.
Brownlow Committee (1937) – Recommended strengthening the executive branch and increasing the President’s staff.
Hoover Commission (1947-1949 & 1953-1955) – Suggested reorganization of the federal government to improve efficiency.
The Grace Commission (1982-1984) – Proposed ways to reduce government waste and inefficiency.

Correct Answer: 2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is correct because some government departments not only perform administrative functions but also have delegated legislative powers to make rules and regulations. This is a common feature of delegated legislation in modern governance.
Reason (R) is also correct because John M. Pfiffner advocated for a single head of the department in specific situations to ensure better coordination and accountability.
However, (R) does not directly explain (A) since the delegation of legislative powers to departments is unrelated to Pfiffner’s preference for single-head departments.

Correct Answer: 1) They are all advocates of Public Choice Theory in public administration.
Explanation:
Duncan Black, Anthony Downs, James Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow are key contributors to Public Choice Theory, which applies economic principles to political and administrative decision-making.
James Buchanan is particularly known for “The Calculus of Consent” and his work on constitutional economics.
Kenneth Arrow developed Arrow’s Impossibility Theorem, which is fundamental in social choice theory.
Anthony Downs is known for the Economic Theory of Democracy, analyzing rational behavior in politics.
Duncan Black contributed to the median voter theorem.

Correct Answer: 3) II, III, IV, and V
Explanation:
The incorrect statements about the Government of India Act, 1935 are:
II.  Incorrect → The Governor-General had the power to make ordinances as well (not just permanent acts).
III.  Incorrect → Residuary powers were vested in the Governor-General, not the Central Legislature.
IV.  Incorrect → Education was a provincial subject, not with the Central Legislature.
V. Incorrect → Separate representation was given to Muslims, Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, and other minorities, not just Muslims.
Only Statement I is true because bicameral legislatures existed in Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, United Provinces, and Assam under this Act.

Correct Answer: 4) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-V
Explanation:
(A) Shetkari Sangathana → Maharashtra (II) → A farmers’ organization advocating liberalized agricultural policies.
(B) Bhartiya Kisan Sangh → Gujarat (I) → Affiliated with the RSS, focusing on farmers’ rights.
(C) Samata Sangathan → Odisha (IV) → Works for tribal and agricultural laborers.
(D) Disan Mazdoor Sangathan → West Bengal (V) → Works for farm and labor rights.

3) 42nd Amendment
Explanation:
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 added Article 323A, which provided for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals in India. These tribunals handle disputes related to public services, reducing the burden on regular courts.

3) (A) → (III), (B) → (IV), (C) → (I), (D) → (II)
Correct Matching:
(A) An Introduction to Administrative Law → James Hart (III)
(B) Justice and Administrative Law → W.A. Robson (IV)
(C) Comparative Administrative Law → Frank J. Goodnow (I)
(D) Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution → A.V. Dicey (II)

The correct chronological order is:
Aitchison Commission (1886) → Gladstone Committee (1926) → Masterman Committee (1931) → Brownlow Committee (1937)
Correct Answer: 2
(Aitchison Commission – Gladstone Committee – Brownlow Committee – Masterman Committee)

The correct answer is: 2) Only I and IV
Explanation:
Statement I (Correct): The President has the power to declare any area as a “Scheduled Area” under the 5th Schedule, subject to Parliamentary legislation.
Statement II (Incorrect): The 5th Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas in other states, whereas the 6th Schedule applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Statement III (Incorrect): The Governor, not the state government, submits reports to the President regarding Scheduled Area administration.
Statement IV (Correct): The Union government can give directions to state governments regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas under Article 244(1).

2) United Progressive Alliance : 54 seats and 23 percent vote share.

Correct answer is 1. (a), (b), and (c).
Explanation:
Hedley Bull wrote The Control of the Arms Race. (Correct)
L. Gromoo and V. Strigachow wrote Some Economic Aspects of Disarmament. (Correct)
James P. Warburg wrote The Challenge of the Nineteen Sixties. (Correct)
Emile Benoit did write on economic aspects of disarmament but is not linked to Winning Without War in this context. (Incorrect)

The correct answer is: 1) Kenneth Waltz
Explanation:
J.F. Nash contributed to Game Theory, including Bargaining Theory. (correct)
Thomas Schelling worked on strategic bargaining and conflict resolution. (correct)
Roger Fisher is known for negotiation and conflict resolution. (correct)
Kenneth Waltz, however, is known for Neorealism (Structural Realism) in international relations, not Bargaining Theory. (incorrect)

The incorrect pair is: B) Uttar Pradesh : Gorkhaland
Explanation:
Saurashtra is a demand in Gujarat. (correct)
Gorkhaland is demanded in West Bengal, not Uttar Pradesh. (incorrect)
Marupradesh is a demand in Rajasthan. (correct)
Vidarbha is a demand in Maharashtra. (correct)

3. Vohra Committee
Explanation:
The Vohra Committee (1993) highlighted concerns about the criminalization of politics and the nexus between criminals, politicians, and bureaucrats in India.

Correct answer is 3 (Henry Fayol and Marshall Dimock).
Explanation:
The integral view of public administration considers all activities of government—legislative, executive, and judicial—as part of administration. Henry Fayol and Marshall Dimock supported this view, emphasizing that administration is a broad and inclusive process.

The correct answer is: 3) ((A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) – II)
Explanation:
E.H. Carr → The Twenty Years’ Crisis (III)
Robert Keohane → Neorealism and Its Critics (I)
John Mearsheimer → The Tragedy of Great Power Politics (IV)
Fareed Zakaria → From Wealth to Power (II)