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Welcome to the Indian Polity CUET PG Political Science Sectional Test!
This quiz is designed to assess your understanding and mastery of key concepts related to Indian Polity, specifically aligned with the CUET PG syllabus.
This sectional test is perfect for refining your knowledge of Indian Polity and ensuring you’re well-prepared for the CUET PG exam!
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Which of the constitutional provisions don’t come within the legislative jurisdiction of the legislature of a state?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans. 2. Only 2, 3, 4, and 5
Explanation: The legislative jurisdiction of a State does not extend to Articles 16(4) (Clause 4), 32, 33, and 34, as these are part of the Union’s exclusive domain. Article 16(3) deals with employment reservations for certain regions, which is under State jurisdiction.
Ans. 2. Only 2, 3, 4, and 5
Explanation: The legislative jurisdiction of a State does not extend to Articles 16(4) (Clause 4), 32, 33, and 34, as these are part of the Union’s exclusive domain. Article 16(3) deals with employment reservations for certain regions, which is under State jurisdiction.
Reservation of the seats for the scheduled casted and scheduled Tribes Panchayati Raj is provided under which Article of the constitution?
The correct answer is: (2) Article 243D
Article 243D of the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women in Panchayats (local self-government institutions).
The correct answer is: (2) Article 243D
Article 243D of the Indian Constitution provides for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and women in Panchayats (local self-government institutions).
Which of the following articles were not inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer Answer: 1. Only 1 and 2
Explanation: Articles 39A, 43A, and 48A were inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, while Articles 21A and 31A were not.
Answer Answer: 1. Only 1 and 2
Explanation: Articles 39A, 43A, and 48A were inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, while Articles 21A and 31A were not.
Who in the constituent assembly, said that the doctrine of independence was not to be raised to the level of a dogma so as to enable the judiciary to function as a kind of super legislature or super executive?
Answer. 4. A.K. Ayyar
Explanation: A.K. Ayyar in the Constituent Assembly emphasized that judicial independence should not lead to the judiciary acting as a “super legislature” or “super executive.”
Answer. 4. A.K. Ayyar
Explanation: A.K. Ayyar in the Constituent Assembly emphasized that judicial independence should not lead to the judiciary acting as a “super legislature” or “super executive.”
The parliament of India consists of
choose the correct answer from the options given below
Answer. 1. Only 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: The Parliament consists of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the President, as per Article 79.
Answer. 1. Only 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: The Parliament consists of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the President, as per Article 79.
Which of the following is / are correct?
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Answer: 3. Only 2, 3, 4, and 5
Explanation: Article 143 empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court’s opinion is advisory, not binding, and it may decline to answer in certain cases.
Answer: 3. Only 2, 3, 4, and 5
Explanation: Article 143 empowers the President to consult the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court’s opinion is advisory, not binding, and it may decline to answer in certain cases.
Parliament may by law
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Answer: 1. Only 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: Parliament can extend High Court jurisdiction, establish common High Courts, and constitute High Courts for Union Territories but does not appoint High Court judges.
Answer: 1. Only 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: Parliament can extend High Court jurisdiction, establish common High Courts, and constitute High Courts for Union Territories but does not appoint High Court judges.
Which constitutional amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?
Answer: 2. 61st Amendment Act, 1988
Explanation: The 61st Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
Answer: 2. 61st Amendment Act, 1988
Explanation: The 61st Amendment Act reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
The constitution 42nd amendment act, 1976 added three words to the preamble of the constitution of india.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Answer: 1. Only 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: The words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
Answer: 1. Only 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: The words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
Which was the first reported case of public interest litigation seeking relief for the under trial prisoners in jails?
Answer: 2. Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar, 1979
Explanation: This case brought attention to the plight of undertrial prisoners, leading to reforms in the criminal justice system.
Answer: 2. Hussainara Khatoon vs. State of Bihar, 1979
Explanation: This case brought attention to the plight of undertrial prisoners, leading to reforms in the criminal justice system.
Given below are two statements one is labelled as assertion A and the other is labelled as reason R.
Assertion A: Power of judicial reviews considered as part of the basic structure of the constitution.
Reason R: The Supreme Court is endowed with the power of judicial review to ensure judicial independence and protection of rights.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
Answer: 1. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Judicial review is part of the Constitution’s basic structure to ensure judicial independence and protection of rights.
Answer: 1. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Judicial review is part of the Constitution’s basic structure to ensure judicial independence and protection of rights.
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The powers within the supervisory jurisdiction of the High Courts are both administrative and judicial in nature.
Reason R: Article 227(1) gives the High Court power of Superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their territorial and constitutional jurisdiction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: 1. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Article 227 gives High Courts supervisory powers, which are both administrative and judicial in nature.
Answer: 1. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation: Article 227 gives High Courts supervisory powers, which are both administrative and judicial in nature.
Which fundamental rights are available to all persons?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: 4. Only 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: Fundamental rights like Articles 20, 21, 22, and religious freedom under Articles 25-28 are available to all persons, but Article 15 is specific to citizens.
Answer: 4. Only 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: Fundamental rights like Articles 20, 21, 22, and religious freedom under Articles 25-28 are available to all persons, but Article 15 is specific to citizens.
Which constitutional amendment ended the parts A, B&C categories of States and implemented the state reorganisation scheme?
Answer: 4. The 7th Amendment Act, 1956
Explanation: The 7th Amendment reorganized states by abolishing categories A, B, and C and implementing a uniform state structure.
Answer: 4. The 7th Amendment Act, 1956
Explanation: The 7th Amendment reorganized states by abolishing categories A, B, and C and implementing a uniform state structure.
Which constitutional amendment abolished the private purse and privileges of former rulers of princely states?
Answer: 3. The 26th Amendment Act, 1971
Explanation: The 26th Amendment abolished privy purses and privileges of princely rulers to promote equality.
Answer: 3. The 26th Amendment Act, 1971
Explanation: The 26th Amendment abolished privy purses and privileges of princely rulers to promote equality.
Which powers and responsibilities are not endowed by the constitution to the panchayats?
Answer: 4. Regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries
Explanation: This responsibility is not constitutionally mandated for Panchayats but may be delegated by States.
Answer: 4. Regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries
Explanation: This responsibility is not constitutionally mandated for Panchayats but may be delegated by States.
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Reason R: The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of the people.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: 4. Both Houses of Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill
Explanation: Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has limited powers, making this statement incorrect.
Answer: 4. Both Houses of Parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill
Explanation: Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has limited powers, making this statement incorrect.
Which of the following is incorrect about a money bill?
Answer: 4. Both the houses of the parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill.
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha has only a recommendatory role in the case of a Money Bill. It cannot amend or reject a Money Bill, and the Lok Sabha has the final say.
Answer: 4. Both the houses of the parliament enjoy equal powers with respect to a Money Bill.
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha has only a recommendatory role in the case of a Money Bill. It cannot amend or reject a Money Bill, and the Lok Sabha has the final say.
Who explains party systems in India in terms of democratisation and decay?
Answer: 2. Yogendra Yadav
Explanation: Yogendra Yadav provides an analysis of party systems in India through concepts like democratisation and decay.
Answer: 2. Yogendra Yadav
Explanation: Yogendra Yadav provides an analysis of party systems in India through concepts like democratisation and decay.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:
Ans (3) Original jurisdiction
Explanation: Article 131 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction to resolve disputes between the Centre and States.
Ans (3) Original jurisdiction
Explanation: Article 131 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction to resolve disputes between the Centre and States.
Which of the following does not find mention in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
Ans: (2) Dignity of the Constitution
Explanation: The Preamble mentions dignity of the individual, fraternity, unity, and integrity of the nation, but not the dignity of the Constitution.
Ans: (2) Dignity of the Constitution
Explanation: The Preamble mentions dignity of the individual, fraternity, unity, and integrity of the nation, but not the dignity of the Constitution.
Which one of the following is the largest committee of the Parliament?
Ans: (b) The Committee on Estimates
Explanation: The Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members, making it the largest parliamentary committee.
Ans: (b) The Committee on Estimates
Explanation: The Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members, making it the largest parliamentary committee.
Which of the following articles were NOT inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
Ans: (a) Article 21A
Explanation: Article 21A was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
Ans: (a) Article 21A
Explanation: Article 21A was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the Part A, B, and C categories of states and implemented the state reorganization scheme?
Ans: (4) The Constitution (7th Amendment) Act, 1956
Explanation: The 7th Amendment reorganized states based on linguistic and administrative considerations.
Ans: (4) The Constitution (7th Amendment) Act, 1956
Explanation: The 7th Amendment reorganized states based on linguistic and administrative considerations.
Which Constitutional Amendment abolished the privy purses and privileges of former rulers of princely states?
Ans: (3) The Constitution (26th Amendment) Act, 1971
Explanation: This amendment ended privileges and allowances for former princely rulers.
Ans: (3) The Constitution (26th Amendment) Act, 1971
Explanation: This amendment ended privileges and allowances for former princely rulers.
Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions related to the anti-defection law enacted by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985?
Ans: (4) Tenth Schedule
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule contains provisions related to disqualification of members on grounds of defection..
Ans: (4) Tenth Schedule
Explanation: The Tenth Schedule contains provisions related to disqualification of members on grounds of defection..
Who coined the term “Indian Constitution as a Social Document”?
Answer: 1. Granville Austin
Explanation: Granville Austin described the Indian Constitution as a social document due to its focus on social justice, economic equality, and political equity.
Answer: 1. Granville Austin
Explanation: Granville Austin described the Indian Constitution as a social document due to its focus on social justice, economic equality, and political equity.
Which Act introduced the system of dyarchy in Indian provinces?
Answer: 2. Government of India Act, 1919
Explanation: The 1919 Act introduced dyarchy, dividing provincial subjects into reserved (controlled by British officials) and transferred (administered by Indian ministers).
Answer: 2. Government of India Act, 1919
Explanation: The 1919 Act introduced dyarchy, dividing provincial subjects into reserved (controlled by British officials) and transferred (administered by Indian ministers).
Which amendment added the Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution?
Answer: 1. 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment, passed in 1976, added ten Fundamental Duties to encourage citizens to promote harmony and uphold constitutional values
Answer: 1. 42nd Amendment
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment, passed in 1976, added ten Fundamental Duties to encourage citizens to promote harmony and uphold constitutional values
Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?
Answer: 3. Article 17
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form.
Answer: 3. Article 17
Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability and prohibits its practice in any form.
Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for “Emergency Provisions”?
Answer: 2. Articles 352-360
Explanation: These articles outline provisions for national, state, and financial emergencies, enabling centralization of power during crises.
Answer: 2. Articles 352-360
Explanation: These articles outline provisions for national, state, and financial emergencies, enabling centralization of power during crises.
The term of the looks above was extended to six years by which of the following amendments?
Answer: 2. 42nd constitutional amendment act
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 extended the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from five to six years during the Emergency. This was later reverted to five years by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
Answer: 2. 42nd constitutional amendment act
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 extended the term of the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from five to six years during the Emergency. This was later reverted to five years by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
When the president of India addresses a joint session of the parliament, who presides over the session?
Answer: 1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: During the joint session of Parliament, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the session. This includes occasions like the President’s address at the beginning of the first session after a general election or at the commencement of the first session each year.
Answer: 1. Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Explanation: During the joint session of Parliament, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the session. This includes occasions like the President’s address at the beginning of the first session after a general election or at the commencement of the first session each year.
Which of the following taxes does not come under the union list?
Answer: 2. Capitation tax
Explanation: Capitation tax falls under the State List as per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Other taxes, like corporation tax and taxes on income other than agricultural income, are in the Union List.
Answer: 2. Capitation tax
Explanation: Capitation tax falls under the State List as per the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. Other taxes, like corporation tax and taxes on income other than agricultural income, are in the Union List.
In the history of parliament of India, how many times the parliamentary proceedings were censured?
Answer: 1. Never
Explanation: Parliamentary proceedings in India have never been officially censured. This reflects the respect given to parliamentary privileges and procedures.
Answer: 1. Never
Explanation: Parliamentary proceedings in India have never been officially censured. This reflects the respect given to parliamentary privileges and procedures.
The first delimitation was carried out under whose office?
Answer: 3. Union minister of law
Explanation: The first Delimitation Commission, constituted in 1952, was headed by a former Supreme Court judge but operated under the supervision of the Union Law Ministry.
Answer: 3. Union minister of law
Explanation: The first Delimitation Commission, constituted in 1952, was headed by a former Supreme Court judge but operated under the supervision of the Union Law Ministry.
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the centre and the state falls under its
Answer: 3. Original jurisdiction
Explanation: Article 131 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between two or more states.
Answer: 3. Original jurisdiction
Explanation: Article 131 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between two or more states.
Which one of the following does not find mention in the preamble to the Indian constitution?
Answer: 2. Dignity of the constitution
Explanation: The Preamble mentions “Dignity of the individual,” “Fraternity,” and “Unity and integrity of the nation,” but does not include “Dignity of the constitution” as a specific phrase.
Answer: 2. Dignity of the constitution
Explanation: The Preamble mentions “Dignity of the individual,” “Fraternity,” and “Unity and integrity of the nation,” but does not include “Dignity of the constitution” as a specific phrase.
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Judicial review is a process to restrain the executive or the legislature from exercising power which may not be sanctioned by the constitution.
Reason (R) : The source Of the power of judicial review in India is article 12 of the constitution
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: 3. A is true, but R is false
Explanation: Judicial review in India is derived from Articles 13, 32, and 226 of the Constitution, not Article 12. Article 12 defines the “State” for the purposes of fundamental rights.
Answer: 3. A is true, but R is false
Explanation: Judicial review in India is derived from Articles 13, 32, and 226 of the Constitution, not Article 12. Article 12 defines the “State” for the purposes of fundamental rights.
Arrange the following fundamental rights in the right order
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
Explanation: Fundamental rights are organized as: Right to equality, Right to freedom, Right to life, and Right to constitutional remedies.
4.Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
3.Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)
2.Right to life (Article 21)
1.Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
Answer: 4 → 3 → 2 → 1
Explanation: Fundamental rights are organized as: Right to equality, Right to freedom, Right to life, and Right to constitutional remedies.
4.Right to equality (Articles 14–18)
3.Right to freedom (Articles 19–22)
2.Right to life (Article 21)
1.Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)
Article 226 of the Indian constitution deals with
Answer: 4. Power of high courts to issue certain writs
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose.
Answer: 4. Power of high courts to issue certain writs
Explanation: Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for enforcement of fundamental rights and for any other purpose.
Which of the following are true about representative democracy?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: 3. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation: Simple majority, blocking minority, absolute majority, and qualified majority are all features of representative democracy. Concurrent majority is not an accepted term in this context.
Answer: 3. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation: Simple majority, blocking minority, absolute majority, and qualified majority are all features of representative democracy. Concurrent majority is not an accepted term in this context.
Which of the following are correct about the governor of a state?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: 2. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
Explanation:
Answer: 2. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
Explanation:
Which among the following statements are true about legal equality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: 2. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Legal equality guarantees equal treatment by the law and is a characteristic of civil society. It does not inherently contradict the rule of law or abolish special privileges.
Answer: 2. 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Legal equality guarantees equal treatment by the law and is a characteristic of civil society. It does not inherently contradict the rule of law or abolish special privileges.
It has been found about the election Commission of India
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Answer: 2. 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
Answer: 2. 2, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Writs) | List- II (Corresponding meaning) |
---|---|
(A) Habeas Corpus | I) Inquiring into the legality of the claim to a public office |
(B) Mandamus | II) Command |
(C) Certiorari | III) to have a body |
(D) Quo Warranto | IV) Quash the order or decision of the tribunal |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: 3. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
Explanation:
Answer: 3. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
Explanation:
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Electoral System) | List- II (Countries) |
---|---|
(A) Single member plurality | I) Ireland |
(B) Single transferable vote | II) Germany |
(C) Mixed member proportional | III) South Aftrica |
(D) List system | IV) Canada |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: 1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Explanation:
Answer: 1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
Explanation:
Match List-I with List-II
List- I (Directive Principles of State Policy) | List- II (Articles) |
---|---|
(A) Organization of village panchayats | I) Article 49 |
(B) Workers participation in management | II) Article 40 |
(C) Protection of monuments | III) Article 50 |
(D) Separation of judiciary from executive | IV) Article 43A |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Answer: 2. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Explanation:
Answer: 2. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Explanation:
Chronologically arrange the tenure of the following presidents
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (2) 2, 1, 3, 4
Explanation:
Answer: (2) 2, 1, 3, 4
Explanation:
The president can dissolve Lok Sabha on
Answer: 3. The recommendation of the Council of Ministers
Explanation:
The President of India dissolves the Lok Sabha based on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister as per Article 85 of the Constitution.
Answer: 3. The recommendation of the Council of Ministers
Explanation:
The President of India dissolves the Lok Sabha based on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister as per Article 85 of the Constitution.
Which of the following statements are correct about the council of states?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (1) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:
Answer: (1) 1, 2, and 4 only
Explanation:
Consider the following statements
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
Answer: (2) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
Answer: (2) 1, 3, and 4 only
Explanation:
Chronologically arranged the provision of the constitution according to the order of its appearance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (3) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation:
Answer: (3) 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation:
Which of the following committee recommended for panchayati Raj system in India?
Answer: 2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Explanation:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions to promote decentralization.
Answer: 2. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Explanation:
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended the establishment of Panchayati Raj institutions to promote decentralization.
Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of Indian constitution
List- I (Leaders) | List- II (Role in Constitution Making) |
---|---|
(A) Sarojini Naidu | I) President of constituent Assembly |
(B) B.R. Ambedkar | II) Member of Constituent Assembly |
(C) Rajendra Prasad | III) Chairman of the Drafting Committee |
(D) Motilal Nehru | IV) Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Explanation:
Answer: (3) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Explanation:
Whose regime in Indian politics is popularly known as one party dominant system?
Answer: (3) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
The Indian National Congress dominated Indian politics under Jawaharlal Nehru’s leadership from 1947 to the mid-1960s.
Answer: (3) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation:
The Indian National Congress dominated Indian politics under Jawaharlal Nehru’s leadership from 1947 to the mid-1960s.
Which of the following writs is issued by Supreme Court in case of illegal detention of a person?
Answer: 1. Habeas Corpus
Explanation:
“Habeas Corpus” literally means “to have the body” and is issued to protect individuals from unlawful detention.
Answer: 1. Habeas Corpus
Explanation:
“Habeas Corpus” literally means “to have the body” and is issued to protect individuals from unlawful detention.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (2) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
Answer: (2) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation:
How many members are nominated to rajya Sabha by the president of India?
Answer: (2) 12
Explanation:
The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha for their expertise in fields such as literature, science, art, and social services.
Answer: (2) 12
Explanation:
The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha for their expertise in fields such as literature, science, art, and social services.
Which among the following is not covered under article 21 of the Indian constitution?
Answer: 4. Right to active euthanasia
Explanation:
Active euthanasia is not covered under Article 21. However, passive euthanasia has been recognized under Article 21 by the Supreme Court in the Aruna Shanbaug case.
Answer: 4. Right to active euthanasia
Explanation:
Active euthanasia is not covered under Article 21. However, passive euthanasia has been recognized under Article 21 by the Supreme Court in the Aruna Shanbaug case.
The constitution of local body ombudsman was recommended by which of the following bodies
Answer: (2) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
Explanation:
The Second ARC recommended the creation of a local body ombudsman to ensure accountability and transparency at the local level.
Answer: (2) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
Explanation:
The Second ARC recommended the creation of a local body ombudsman to ensure accountability and transparency at the local level.
Which among the following institutions has been given the responsibility to regulate the right of citizenship including its acquisition and termination?
Answer: (1) The Parliament
Explanation: The Parliament has the authority to regulate citizenship in India, including acquisition and termination, as per Articles 5–11 of the Constitution.
Answer: (1) The Parliament
Explanation: The Parliament has the authority to regulate citizenship in India, including acquisition and termination, as per Articles 5–11 of the Constitution.
Who among the following is the final authority in deciding whether or not a Lok Sabha MP can be disqualified from the house on the ground of defection?
Answer: (3) The Speaker of the House
Explanation: Under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (Anti-Defection Law), the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the final authority on matters of disqualification due to defection.
Answer: (3) The Speaker of the House
Explanation: Under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (Anti-Defection Law), the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the final authority on matters of disqualification due to defection.
Elections to the Rajya Sabha in India follow the principle of proportional representation. Which among the following systems is followed in this regard?
Answer: (1) Single Transferable Vote System
Explanation: Rajya Sabha elections use proportional representation through a single transferable vote, allowing voters to rank candidates in order of preference.
Answer: (1) Single Transferable Vote System
Explanation: Rajya Sabha elections use proportional representation through a single transferable vote, allowing voters to rank candidates in order of preference.
Who among the following introduced The Asylum Bill, 2015 as a Private Member Bill in the Lok Sabha intended for the establishment of an effective system to protect refugees and asylum seekers by means of an appropriate legal framework to determine claims for asylum in India?
Answer: (3) Shashi Tharoor
Explanation: Shashi Tharoor introduced the Asylum Bill, 2015, to create a legal framework for protecting refugees and asylum seekers in India.
Answer: (3) Shashi Tharoor
Explanation: Shashi Tharoor introduced the Asylum Bill, 2015, to create a legal framework for protecting refugees and asylum seekers in India.
Which one of the following is not a statutory commission
Answer: (4) The Law Commission of India
Explanation: The Law Commission is not a statutory body; it is an executive body constituted by the government.
Answer: (4) The Law Commission of India
Explanation: The Law Commission is not a statutory body; it is an executive body constituted by the government.
The British parliamentarian and political theorist Edmund Burke pursued the impeachment trial of which governor‐general of India?
Answer: (2) Warren Hastings
Explanation: Edmund Burke pursued the impeachment of Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of India, for corruption and misconduct.
Answer: (2) Warren Hastings
Explanation: Edmund Burke pursued the impeachment of Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of India, for corruption and misconduct.
Which of the following hold true for the Puttaswamy vs. Union of India judgment of the Supreme Court of India?
Choose the correct options from the following.
Answer: (2) A, C, and D only
Explanation: The judgment upheld the right to privacy as a fundamental right (Article 21). It was unanimous and passed in August 2017.
Answer: (2) A, C, and D only
Explanation: The judgment upheld the right to privacy as a fundamental right (Article 21). It was unanimous and passed in August 2017.
What was the 97th Constitutional amendment of 2012 about?
Choose the correct options from the following.
Answer: (4) A, B, C, and D
Explanation: The 97th amendment pertained to cooperative societies, introduced Part IXB, affected state control, and was partially struck down by the Supreme Court.
Answer: (4) A, B, C, and D
Explanation: The 97th amendment pertained to cooperative societies, introduced Part IXB, affected state control, and was partially struck down by the Supreme Court.
Which of the following would you not associate with the principle of free speech?
Answer: (4) Article 360 of the Indian Constitution
Explanation: Article 360 deals with financial emergencies, unrelated to free speech.
Answer: (4) Article 360 of the Indian Constitution
Explanation: Article 360 deals with financial emergencies, unrelated to free speech.
Which of the following statements are true about the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution?
Choose the correct options from the following.
Answer: (3) B, C, and D only
Explanation: The doctrine was enunciated in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
It restricts Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution in a way that alters its basic structure.
Answer: (3) B, C, and D only
Explanation: The doctrine was enunciated in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
It restricts Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution in a way that alters its basic structure.
Which of the following are characteristics of federalism in India?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (3) A, B, C, and D only
Explanation:
Residuary powers lie with the Union, not the states, making option E incorrect.
Answer: (3) A, B, C, and D only
Explanation:
Residuary powers lie with the Union, not the states, making option E incorrect.
Which judgment has most been cited in discussions on the colonial era law of sedition?
Answer: (2) Kedar Nath Singh, 1962
Explanation: The Kedar Nath Singh case upheld the constitutionality of sedition (Section 124A) while limiting its scope.
Answer: (2) Kedar Nath Singh, 1962
Explanation: The Kedar Nath Singh case upheld the constitutionality of sedition (Section 124A) while limiting its scope.
Which Indian ministry is responsible for agricultural trade related negotiations in WTO?
Answer: (3) Ministry of Trade and Commerce
Explanation: The Ministry of Trade and Commerce oversees agricultural trade negotiations in the WTO.
Answer: (3) Ministry of Trade and Commerce
Explanation: The Ministry of Trade and Commerce oversees agricultural trade negotiations in the WTO.
Which of the following statements are from the judgement on the right to privacy?
A. The government of India argued on the basis of judgement in Kharak Singh case that there is no specific right to privacy in the Constitution of India
B. The court mentioned the case of Aadhar and biometric attendance as a violation of right to privacy
C. Judges quoted John Stuart Mill’s essay ‘On Liberty’ in the judgment
D. Judges argued that fundamental rights cannot be seen in isolation from each other
Choose the correct answer from the following:
Answer: (1) A, B, and D only
Explanation: The government argued there was no specific right to privacy.
Fundamental rights are interlinked, but John Stuart Mill’s essay was not quoted in this judgment.
Answer: (1) A, B, and D only
Explanation: The government argued there was no specific right to privacy.
Fundamental rights are interlinked, but John Stuart Mill’s essay was not quoted in this judgment.
Which article of the Constitution of India makes provisions for the Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States?
Answer: (1) Article 315
Explanation: Article 315 establishes Public Service Commissions for the Union and States.
Answer: (1) Article 315
Explanation: Article 315 establishes Public Service Commissions for the Union and States.
Which article of the Constitution of India provides with presenting a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure by the Government of India to the Parliament every year?
Answer: (1) Article 112
Explanation: Article 112 mandates the presentation of the annual financial statement to Parliament.
Answer: (1) Article 112
Explanation: Article 112 mandates the presentation of the annual financial statement to Parliament.
Which among the following comes under the entire gamut of the activities of the NITI Aayog?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation: NITI Aayog performs all these roles, including policy design, fostering cooperative federalism, monitoring, and acting as a think tank.
Answer: (4) All of the above
Explanation: NITI Aayog performs all these roles, including policy design, fostering cooperative federalism, monitoring, and acting as a think tank.
When was the NITI Aayog Forum for North‐East set up to address various challenges in the region and recommend requisite interventions to achieve sustainable economic growth?
Answer: (2) February 2018
Explanation: The forum was established to address developmental challenges in the North-East.
Answer: (2) February 2018
Explanation: The forum was established to address developmental challenges in the North-East.
Which among the following statements is not a correct evaluation of the Right to Information Act (RTI, 2005)?
Answer: (3) It was drafted by the National Advisory Committee
Explanation: The RTI Act was drafted by civil society activists, not the National Advisory Committee.
Answer: (3) It was drafted by the National Advisory Committee
Explanation: The RTI Act was drafted by civil society activists, not the National Advisory Committee.
‘Organisation of village panchayats as units of self‐governance’ has been:
Answer: (2) A Directive Principle guiding State policy
Explanation: Article 40 of the Directive Principles calls for organizing village panchayats as units of self-governance.
Answer: (2) A Directive Principle guiding State policy
Explanation: Article 40 of the Directive Principles calls for organizing village panchayats as units of self-governance.
Which among the following reports did the Committee on the Status of Women in India prepare?
Answer: (1) Towards Equality Report
Explanation: The “Towards Equality” report (1974) assessed the status of women in India.
Answer: (1) Towards Equality Report
Explanation: The “Towards Equality” report (1974) assessed the status of women in India.
The ineffectiveness of the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 led to the enactment of which particular Act in late 1980s?
Answer: (2) The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act
Explanation: This Act was enacted in 1989 to address caste-based atrocities.
Answer: (2) The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act
Explanation: This Act was enacted in 1989 to address caste-based atrocities.
Articles 36 to 51 comprise of?
Answer: (3) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution contain the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guide the government in framing policies aimed at securing economic and social democracy. These principles are not enforceable by law but are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Answer: (3) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation: Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution contain the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which guide the government in framing policies aimed at securing economic and social democracy. These principles are not enforceable by law but are fundamental in the governance of the country.
Article one of the constitution of India lays down that
Answer: (2) India shall be a Union of States
Explanation:
Article one of the Constitution declares that India is a “Union of States,” meaning it is an indestructible union of destructible states. The Union has greater authority, and states cannot secede from the Union.
Answer: (2) India shall be a Union of States
Explanation:
Article one of the Constitution declares that India is a “Union of States,” meaning it is an indestructible union of destructible states. The Union has greater authority, and states cannot secede from the Union.
The term socialist was inserted in the Bramble to the constitution of India by the
Answer: (1) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added the words “socialist,” “secular,” and “integrity” to the Preamble. “Socialist” indicates the commitment to social and economic equality.
Answer: (1) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added the words “socialist,” “secular,” and “integrity” to the Preamble. “Socialist” indicates the commitment to social and economic equality.
The constitution of India provides right to equality to the citizens of India under
Answer: (2) Article 14 to 17
Explanation: Articles 14 to 17 ensure the Right to Equality. They include equality before law (Article 14), prohibition of discrimination (Article 15), equality of opportunity in employment (Article 16), and abolition of untouchability (Article 17).
Answer: (2) Article 14 to 17
Explanation: Articles 14 to 17 ensure the Right to Equality. They include equality before law (Article 14), prohibition of discrimination (Article 15), equality of opportunity in employment (Article 16), and abolition of untouchability (Article 17).
part 5, chapter one of the constitution of India contains provisions relating to the powers and functions of the
Answer: (1) Executive
Explanation: Part V, Chapter I of the Constitution (Articles 52 to 78) deals with the Union Executive, which includes the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, and the Council of Ministers.
Answer: (1) Executive
Explanation: Part V, Chapter I of the Constitution (Articles 52 to 78) deals with the Union Executive, which includes the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister, and the Council of Ministers.
The composition of the Supreme Court of India is mentioned in
Answer: (2) Article 124 of the Indian Constitution
Explanation: Article 124 deals with the establishment and composition of the Supreme Court, including the appointment of judges and their qualifications.
Under article 32 of the Indian constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to
Answer: (2) Article 124 of the Indian Constitution
Explanation: Article 124 deals with the establishment and composition of the Supreme Court, including the appointment of judges and their qualifications.
Under article 32 of the Indian constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to
part XX of the Indian constitution contains provisions relating to
Answer: (2) Amendment of the Constitution
Explanation: Part XX (Article 368) provides the procedure for amending the Constitution. Amendments can be made through a simple majority, special majority, or with the consent of states.
Answer: (2) Amendment of the Constitution
Explanation: Part XX (Article 368) provides the procedure for amending the Constitution. Amendments can be made through a simple majority, special majority, or with the consent of states.
The 13th amendment has been a point of contention between India and she Lank. The 13th amendment provided for
1. establishment of provincial councils
2. Taking action against the human rights violators
3. creation of a second chamber in central legislature
Choose the correct answer from the following options
Answer: (2) 1 only
Explanation: The 13th Amendment of Sri Lanka’s Constitution established provincial councils to devolve powers to Tamil-majority areas. It is unrelated to human rights violations or the creation of a second legislative chamber.
Answer: (2) 1 only
Explanation: The 13th Amendment of Sri Lanka’s Constitution established provincial councils to devolve powers to Tamil-majority areas. It is unrelated to human rights violations or the creation of a second legislative chamber.
In Indian context, the vishaka guidelines laid down the provisions related to which of the following?
Answer: (1) Protection of women from sexual harassment at the workplace
Explanation: The Vishaka Guidelines, laid down by the Supreme Court in 1997, set the framework to prevent and address sexual harassment of women at workplaces in India. They formed the basis for the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013.
Answer: (1) Protection of women from sexual harassment at the workplace
Explanation: The Vishaka Guidelines, laid down by the Supreme Court in 1997, set the framework to prevent and address sexual harassment of women at workplaces in India. They formed the basis for the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act, 2013.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct code:
I. The President of India is eligible for re-election.
II. The President of India can be a member of either House of Parliament.
III. The Vice-President of India is elected by the electoral college of both Houses of Parliament.
IV. The Vice-President of India acts as the Chairperson of the Council of States.
Answer: (2) I, III, and IV
Explanation:
• I: True. The President of India can seek re-election (Article 57).
• II: False. The President cannot be a member of either House (Article 59).
• III: True. The Vice-President is elected by the electoral college consisting of both Houses (Article 66).
• IV: True. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: (2) I, III, and IV
Explanation:
• I: True. The President of India can seek re-election (Article 57).
• II: False. The President cannot be a member of either House (Article 59).
• III: True. The Vice-President is elected by the electoral college consisting of both Houses (Article 66).
• IV: True. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
Statement A: The Election Commission of India is a multi-member commission with a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two additional Election Commissioners. The CEC is the pre-eminent head of the election machinery.
Statement B: The powers of the Election Commissioners are coordinate and co-equal since all decisions, in principle and practice, are to be taken by consensus or majority vote.
Answer: (2) A and B are true
Explanation: The Election Commission became multi-member in 1993. All members, including the CEC, have equal powers. Decisions are taken by consensus or majority vote.
Answer: (2) A and B are true
Explanation: The Election Commission became multi-member in 1993. All members, including the CEC, have equal powers. Decisions are taken by consensus or majority vote.
Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts provides the rotation system of reservations in local body elections
Answer: (3) 73rd Amendment Act
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment introduced Panchayati Raj and a rotational system of reservation for SCs, STs, and women.
Answer: (3) 73rd Amendment Act
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment introduced Panchayati Raj and a rotational system of reservation for SCs, STs, and women.
“Constitution is what the Parliament enacts.” This statement is valid in the case of:
Answer: (2) UK
Explanation: In the UK, Parliament is sovereign, and the constitution is unwritten and evolves with laws passed by Parliament.
Answer: (2) UK
Explanation: In the UK, Parliament is sovereign, and the constitution is unwritten and evolves with laws passed by Parliament.
The 103rd Constitutional Amendment is related to:
Answer: (2) 10 percent reservations to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
Explanation: The 103rd Amendment Act inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) to provide EWS reservation.
Answer: (2) 10 percent reservations to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
Explanation: The 103rd Amendment Act inserted Articles 15(6) and 16(6) to provide EWS reservation.
On writ jurisdiction of the courts, which of the following holds true?
Answer: (2) Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can hear and decide on writ petitions.
Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs, and Article 226 empowers High Courts to do the same.
Answer: (2) Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can hear and decide on writ petitions.
Explanation: Article 32 empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs, and Article 226 empowers High Courts to do the same.
Which of the following is true about “double jeopardy” in India’s penal system?
Answer: (1) A person cannot be punished twice for committing the same crime.
Explanation: Article 20(2) of the Constitution provides protection against double jeopardy, i.e., being prosecuted or punished twice for the same offense.
Answer: (1) A person cannot be punished twice for committing the same crime.
Explanation: Article 20(2) of the Constitution provides protection against double jeopardy, i.e., being prosecuted or punished twice for the same offense.
Which of the following is true about state reorganization bills in India?
Answer: (1) The bill requires the prior approval of the President of India and consultation of the state(s) being affected.
Explanation: State reorganization requires Presidential approval and consultation with the state legislature (Article 3).
Answer: (1) The bill requires the prior approval of the President of India and consultation of the state(s) being affected.
Explanation: State reorganization requires Presidential approval and consultation with the state legislature (Article 3).
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