JRF Advanced Level 6 - Political Science Solution

Advanced Level Test 6

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Welcome to Advanced Test 6: JRF-Level Political Science

This advanced-level quiz is designed to rigorously test your understanding of core and applied concepts in Political Science, strictly aligned with the UGC NET/JRF syllabus.

Mock Test Features

Comprehensive Coverage: Questions from Political Theory, Comparative Politics, International Relations, Indian Politics, Public Administration, and related areas.

Advanced Difficulty Level: Suitable for serious JRF aspirants aiming for top scores.

Interactive Question Format: Multiple-choice and True/False questions.

Instant Feedback: Review your responses to strengthen conceptual clarity.

Performance Tracking: Analyze your score and identify weak areas.

Leaderboard: Compare your performance with fellow aspirants and track your rank.

Test Structure

Total Questions: 100

Marks per Question: 2

Total Marks: 200

Time Limit: 120 Minutes

How to Attempt the Test

Click on the “Start Quiz” button to begin.

You will have 120 minutes to complete the test.

Read each question carefully before selecting your answer.

No negative marking — attempt all questions.

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Review your result to assess strengths and areas needing improvement.

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Important Instructions

Ensure a stable internet connection before starting the test.

Manage your time effectively to attempt all questions.

The test is recommended to be taken in one uninterrupted sitting for best evaluation.

Best wishes for Advanced Test 6 — stay focused and aim for JRF!

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Question 1 of 100

1. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who said that “Political theory includes Political Science and Political philosophy”?
- Charles Merriam
- Robert Nozick
- George Catlin
- W.C Coker
Correct

Answer: (3)

Explanation:
George Catlin, in his book “Political Theory: What is it?”, stated that Political Theory includes both Political Science and Political Philosophy. Political Science deals with the phenomenon of control in various forms over the entire social field, while Political Philosophy is concerned with ends or final values. It asks questions such as what the national good is or “What is a good society.”

Incorrect

Answer: (3)

Explanation:
George Catlin, in his book “Political Theory: What is it?”, stated that Political Theory includes both Political Science and Political Philosophy. Political Science deals with the phenomenon of control in various forms over the entire social field, while Political Philosophy is concerned with ends or final values. It asks questions such as what the national good is or “What is a good society.”
Question 2 of 100

2. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following is correct about Machiavelli’s ‘The Prince’?
- It is the Product of the prevailing condition of his time in his country Italy.
- It is an Academic Treaty
- It is not real Politik
- All of the above
Correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
The Prince by Machiavelli is a classic work of Realpolitik. He wrote this book while considering the prevailing political problems of Italy. Machiavelli laid down rules that a ruler should follow to ensure unity and integrity of the state.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
The Prince by Machiavelli is a classic work of Realpolitik. He wrote this book while considering the prevailing political problems of Italy. Machiavelli laid down rules that a ruler should follow to ensure unity and integrity of the state.
Question 3 of 100

3. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following is not a characteristic of ‘General will’?
- It is self-Contradictory
- It is unlimited
- Inalienable
- Un-representative
Correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
The concept of General Will was given by Rousseau in his Social Contract. The General Will represents the common good and knows what is right for its subjects. It is rational, indivisible, not self-contradictory, and provides unity to society.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
The concept of General Will was given by Rousseau in his Social Contract. The General Will represents the common good and knows what is right for its subjects. It is rational, indivisible, not self-contradictory, and provides unity to society.
Question 4 of 100

4. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who said that “Laws of nature are laws of prudence”?
- Hobbes
- Locke
- Rousseau
- J.S Mill
Correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
While developing his Social Contract Theory, Hobbes explained the Law of Nature as the Law of Prudence. According to Hobbes, a law of nature is a general rule discovered by reason, which forbids humans from doing anything destructive to their own life.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
While developing his Social Contract Theory, Hobbes explained the Law of Nature as the Law of Prudence. According to Hobbes, a law of nature is a general rule discovered by reason, which forbids humans from doing anything destructive to their own life.
Question 5 of 100

5. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Match the following

List–I List–II

A. Surplus value ii. Marx

B. Communist Party iii. Lenin

C. Hegemony i. Gramsci

D. General Will iv. Rousseau
- A-(ii),B-(i),C-(iii),D-(iv)
- A-(i),B-(ii),C-(iii),D-(iv)
- A-(iii),B-(i),C-(ii),D-(iv)
- A-(ii),B-(iii),C-(i),D-(iv)
Correct

Answer: (4) A-(ii),B-(iii),C-(i),D-(iv)

List–I List–II

Surplus Value Marx

Communist Party Lenin

Hegemony Gramsci

General Will Rousseau

Incorrect

Answer: (4) A-(ii),B-(iii),C-(i),D-(iv)

List–I List–II

Surplus Value Marx

Communist Party Lenin

Hegemony Gramsci

General Will Rousseau
Question 6 of 100

6. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which among the following are King’s dharma according to Kautilya?
- Security of the kingdom
- Security of the territory/Property
- Security of the subject
- All of the above
Correct

Answer: (4)

Explanation:
Kautilya emphasized the duties of the king in maintaining law and order. In Arthashastra, he wrote that the king is the guardian of right conduct of the world with four varnas and four ashramas. The king could enact laws when traditional codes collapsed and was considered the protector of dharma.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)

Explanation:
Kautilya emphasized the duties of the king in maintaining law and order. In Arthashastra, he wrote that the king is the guardian of right conduct of the world with four varnas and four ashramas. The king could enact laws when traditional codes collapsed and was considered the protector of dharma.
Question 7 of 100

7. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following things are done by Pandita Ramabai?
- She pledged for the improvements in the educational syllabus of Indian women
- She wrote a book called ‘The High Caste Hindu Women’
- She founded ‘Ramabai Association’
- All of the above
Correct

Answer: (4)

Explanation:
Pandita Ramabai Saraswati was a scholar, feminist, and educator who challenged the restrictions placed on upper-caste Hindu women in the 19th century. Her book “The High Caste Hindu Woman” (1887) highlighted the condition of Hindu widows. The Ramabai Association was established in 1887.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)

Explanation:
Pandita Ramabai Saraswati was a scholar, feminist, and educator who challenged the restrictions placed on upper-caste Hindu women in the 19th century. Her book “The High Caste Hindu Woman” (1887) highlighted the condition of Hindu widows. The Ramabai Association was established in 1887.
Question 8 of 100

8. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
‘The Arctic Homes of Vedas’ was written by
- Pandita Ramabai
- Bal Gangadhar Tilak
- Swami Vivekananda
- None of these
Correct

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
The Arctic Home of the Vedas was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1903. The book proposed that Aryans originated in the Arctic region and later migrated to India.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
The Arctic Home of the Vedas was written by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in 1903. The book proposed that Aryans originated in the Arctic region and later migrated to India.
Question 9 of 100

9. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
What ‘Ari-Mitra’ stands in ‘Mandal Theory’?
- Friend of Neighbour’s friend
- Friend of friend
- Friend of enemy’s friend
- Neighbour of Mitra and its enemy therefore friend of Ari.
Correct

Answer: (3)

Explanation:
In Kautilya’s Mandala Theory, Ari-mitra refers to the enemy’s friend. Every Ari-mitra is considered a potential threat to the state.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)

Explanation:
In Kautilya’s Mandala Theory, Ari-mitra refers to the enemy’s friend. Every Ari-mitra is considered a potential threat to the state.
Question 10 of 100

10. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who among the following is considered as the ‘Father of Modern Tamil Nadu’?
- C. Rajagopalachari
- E.V. Ramasawamy
- C.N Annadurai
- None of the above
Correct

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
E.V. Ramaswamy, popularly known as Periyar, is regarded as the father of modern Tamil Nadu. He founded the Dravidar Kazhagam and worked extensively for social reforms, particularly against caste discrimination and for women’s rights.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
E.V. Ramaswamy, popularly known as Periyar, is regarded as the father of modern Tamil Nadu. He founded the Dravidar Kazhagam and worked extensively for social reforms, particularly against caste discrimination and for women’s rights.
Question 11 of 100

11. Question
4 points
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Ambedkar attacked the caste system as thoroughly impracticable, harmful and miserable failure as a basic social organisation.
Reason (R): For Ambedkar the term Hindu Society’ is a myth.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar criticized the Hindu caste system as immoral. In Annihilation of Caste, he argued that Hindu society is a myth based on inequality.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar criticized the Hindu caste system as immoral. In Annihilation of Caste, he argued that Hindu society is a myth based on inequality.
Question 12 of 100

12. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Comparative Politics is a systematic study of world’s Political systems and their comparisons.
Reason (R): It seeks to explain the differences and similarities among numbers of Political systems.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
Comparative Politics involves the systematic study and comparison of political systems across the world. Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
Comparative Politics involves the systematic study and comparison of political systems across the world. Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Question 13 of 100

13. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Limitations and responsibilities are the key features to recount the essence of a democratic regime.
Reason (R): All democratic regimes have a constitution sort of detailed, written or coventionas-based.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
All democratic regimes have a constitution, either written or conventional. They also function with limitations and responsibilities. Both statements are correct, but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
All democratic regimes have a constitution, either written or conventional. They also function with limitations and responsibilities. Both statements are correct, but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion.
Question 14 of 100

14. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
“Tyranny of the majority” can lead to
- Violence and civil war
- Violence and civil war
- World war II
- Communal Wa
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Tyranny of the Majority goes against the principle of democracy. Majoritarianism leads to social divisions and conflict between majority and minority groups, often resulting in exploitation of minorities, as seen in the civil war in Sri Lanka.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Tyranny of the Majority goes against the principle of democracy. Majoritarianism leads to social divisions and conflict between majority and minority groups, often resulting in exploitation of minorities, as seen in the civil war in Sri Lanka.
Question 15 of 100

15. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Participatory democracy values deliberation and discussion, rather than merely
- Criticising
- Voting
- Planning
- Protesting
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Participatory Democracy emphasizes the active participation and contribution of citizens in governance. It requires political awareness and involvement beyond merely voting.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Participatory Democracy emphasizes the active participation and contribution of citizens in governance. It requires political awareness and involvement beyond merely voting.
Question 16 of 100

16. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
“Introduction to the study of the law of the constitution” is the work of
- Austin
- Ambedkar
- A.V. Dicey
- Almond
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The book “Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution” was written by A.V. Dicey in 1885 and is regarded as a culturally significant work in constitutional studies.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The book “Introduction to the Study of the Law of the Constitution” was written by A.V. Dicey in 1885 and is regarded as a culturally significant work in constitutional studies.
Question 17 of 100

17. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The Decision making theory was Developed especially in the realm of foreign policy making.
Reason (R): It concentrates on the person shaping international events rather than on the international situation.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Decision-making theory was developed mainly in the context of foreign policy-making. It focuses on individuals who shape international events rather than on the international situation itself. Both statements are correct, and the reason explains the assertion.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Decision-making theory was developed mainly in the context of foreign policy-making. It focuses on individuals who shape international events rather than on the international situation itself. Both statements are correct, and the reason explains the assertion.
Question 18 of 100

18. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Marxism doesn’t give a proper theory of International relations.
Reason (R): Marxism wants to create a stateless society.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
There is no specialized theory of International Relations in Marxism. Marxism opposes the state and aims to create a stateless society, viewing the state as an instrument of exploitation.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
There is no specialized theory of International Relations in Marxism. Marxism opposes the state and aims to create a stateless society, viewing the state as an instrument of exploitation.
Question 19 of 100

19. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The concept of power should be vanished from the study of International relation.
Reason (R): The Concept of Power is full of ambiguities.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Although the concept of power is ambiguous, it is one of the most important pillars of International Relations theory and therefore cannot be removed.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Although the concept of power is ambiguous, it is one of the most important pillars of International Relations theory and therefore cannot be removed.
Question 20 of 100

20. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The UN was founded to make the world a safe place.
Reason (R): During the cold war, two superpowers acquired highly sophisticated destructive weapons.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The United Nations was established on 24 October 1945 with the objective of maintaining international peace and security. Both statements are correct, but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The United Nations was established on 24 October 1945 with the objective of maintaining international peace and security. Both statements are correct, but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion.

List–I	List–II
Surplus Value	Marx
Communist Party	Lenin
Hegemony	Gramsci
General Will	Rousseau

List–I	List–II
Surplus Value	Marx
Communist Party	Lenin
Hegemony	Gramsci
General Will	Rousseau

Question 21 of 100

21. Question

4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF

Match the following
List–I	List–II
A. The World Bank	i. 1945
B. World Trade Organisation	iv. 1995
C. World Health Organisation	iii. 1948
D. International Atomic Energy Agency	i. 1957

A-(ii),B-(iv),C-(iii),D-(i)
A-(i),B-(ii),C-(iii),D-(iv)
A-(iii),B-(i),C-(ii),D-(iv)
A-(ii),B-(iii),C-(i),D-(iv)

Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The World Bank was established in 1945, the World Trade Organization in 1995, the World Health Organization in 1948, and the International Atomic Energy Agency in 1957.

Incorrect

Question 22 of 100

22. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Match the following

List–I List–II

A. Karl Kautsky i. Marxism

B. Robert Owen ii. Socialism

C. John Locke iii. Liberalism

D. Clinton Rossiter iv. Conservatism
- A-(ii),B-(iv),C-(iii),D-(i)
- A-(i),B-(ii),C-(iii),D-(iv)
- A-(iii),B-(i),C-(ii),D-(iv)
- A-(ii),B-(i),C-(iii),D-(iv)
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Karl Kautsky is associated with Marxism, Robert Owen with Socialism, John Locke with Liberalism, and Clinton Rossiter with Conservatism.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Karl Kautsky is associated with Marxism, Robert Owen with Socialism, John Locke with Liberalism, and Clinton Rossiter with Conservatism.
Question 23 of 100

23. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who among the following are associated with early socialism sometimes termed as ‘utopian socialist’?

1. Robert Owen
2. Saint Simon
3. Charles Fourier
4. Proudhan
- 1, 2 and 3
- 1, 2 and 4
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
- None of the above
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Early nineteenth-century utopian socialist thinkers included Robert Owen, Claude Henri de Saint-Simon, and Charles Fourier.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Early nineteenth-century utopian socialist thinkers included Robert Owen, Claude Henri de Saint-Simon, and Charles Fourier.
Question 24 of 100

24. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Gulf Cooperation Council was founded in year
- 1989
- 1987
- 1981
- 1980
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Established in 1981, the Gulf Cooperation Council promotes economic, security, cultural, and social cooperation among its six member states and holds annual summits.

Incorrect
Question 25 of 100

25. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
What is the full form of TRIMS?
- Trade related Intellectual Measures
- Agreement on Trade Related Investment Measures
- Technology Related Investment Measures
- None of the Above
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures regulates domestic policies applied to foreign investors and operates under the framework of the World Trade Organization.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures regulates domestic policies applied to foreign investors and operates under the framework of the World Trade Organization.
Question 26 of 100

26. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Agreement on Agricultural is related to which international Organisation?
- WHO
- IMF
- UNESCO
- WTO
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The WTO Agreement on Agriculture was negotiated during the Uruguay Round and came into force on 1 January 1995. Developed countries completed commitments by 2000, developing countries by 2004, while least developed countries were exempt.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The WTO Agreement on Agriculture was negotiated during the Uruguay Round and came into force on 1 January 1995. Developed countries completed commitments by 2000, developing countries by 2004, while least developed countries were exempt.
Question 27 of 100

27. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Gujral Doctrine in Indian foreign Policy was introduced by former Prime Minister I.K. Gujral to
- Deal with ASEAN countries
- Deal with China
- Deal with Immediate neighbours
- Deal with South Africa
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Gujral Doctrine was a five-point framework aimed at improving relations with neighboring countries through trust-building, bilateral dialogue, and unilateral accommodation by India.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Gujral Doctrine was a five-point framework aimed at improving relations with neighboring countries through trust-building, bilateral dialogue, and unilateral accommodation by India.
Question 28 of 100

28. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The Act East Foreign Policy of Modi Government is related to
- GCC
- BRICS
- BIMSTEC
- ASEAN
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
India’s Act East Policy focuses on strengthening relations with the Asia-Pacific region, including ASEAN, Japan, Australia, South Korea, Indonesia, and Vietnam.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
India’s Act East Policy focuses on strengthening relations with the Asia-Pacific region, including ASEAN, Japan, Australia, South Korea, Indonesia, and Vietnam.
Question 29 of 100

29. Question
3 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
India became the member of Shanghai cooperation Organisation in year
- 2015
- 2016
- 2017
- 2018
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
India and Pakistan became full members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation on 9 June 2017 at the Astana Summit in Kazakhstan.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
India and Pakistan became full members of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation on 9 June 2017 at the Astana Summit in Kazakhstan.
Question 30 of 100

30. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The Theme of the 11th BRICS summit held in Brazil was
- Economic Growth for an Innovative Future
- Economic Growth for an Sustainable Future
- Environmental Growth for an Innovative Future
- Economic Growth for an Intellectual Future
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The 11th BRICS Summit was held in Brasília, Brazil, in 2019 with the theme “BRICS: Economic Growth for an Innovative Future.”

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The 11th BRICS Summit was held in Brasília, Brazil, in 2019 with the theme “BRICS: Economic Growth for an Innovative Future.”
Question 31 of 100

31. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who among the following said that “Parliamentary system provides a Daily as well as Periodic assessment of the government”?
- Ambedkar
- M.C. Chagla
- Bagehot
- Bryce
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Bryce stated that the Parliamentary system provides both daily and periodic assessment of the government, ensuring continuous accountability.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Bryce stated that the Parliamentary system provides both daily and periodic assessment of the government, ensuring continuous accountability.

Question 32 of 100

32. Question

4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF

Match the following
List–I (Countries)	List–II (Types of Political System)
A. China	iii. People’s Democratic, Socialist, Republic
B. Germany	i. Federal, Representative, Democratic, Republic
C. France	iv. Indivisible, Secular, Democratic, Republic
D. South Africa	ii. Sovereign, Democratic, Republic

A-(iv),B-(ii),C-(iii),D-(i)
A-(iii),B-(i),C-(iv),D-(ii)
A-(vi),B-(i),C-(iii),D-(ii)
A-(iii),B-(ii),C-(iv),D-(i)

Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
China is a People’s Democratic Socialist Republic, Germany is a Federal Representative Democratic Republic, France is an Indivisible Secular Democratic Republic, and South Africa is a Sovereign Democratic Republic.

Incorrect

Question 33 of 100

33. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The responsibility of interpreting and supervision of the implementation of the Constitution of China rests with which one of the following?
- Standing Committee of National People’s Congress
- Supreme People’s Court
- Central Military Commission
- State Council
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The responsibility of interpreting and supervising the implementation of the Constitution of China lies with the Standing Committee of the National People’s Congress.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The responsibility of interpreting and supervising the implementation of the Constitution of China lies with the Standing Committee of the National People’s Congress.
Question 34 of 100

34. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The idea that before passing a no—confidence motion against the government, the Parliament must explore the possibility of forming an alternative government is a part of
- Constitution of France
- Constitution of US
- Constitution of the Republic of Ireland
- Constitution of Germany
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The German Constitution requires that before passing a no-confidence motion, the Parliament must explore the possibility of forming an alternative government.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The German Constitution requires that before passing a no-confidence motion, the Parliament must explore the possibility of forming an alternative government.
Question 35 of 100

35. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which one of the following countries was described by China as a “Social imperialist power”?
- U.S.A
- U.S.S.R
- India
- Japan
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
China described the erstwhile USSR as a “Social Imperialist Power” due to its governance style and expansionist control over neighboring countries during the Cold War.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
China described the erstwhile USSR as a “Social Imperialist Power” due to its governance style and expansionist control over neighboring countries during the Cold War.
Question 36 of 100

36. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The Institution of Ombudsman was first introduced in
- New Zealand
- Norway
- Finland
- Sweden
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Sweden was the first country to establish the office of Ombudsman in 1809 to supervise compliance with laws by civil and military authorities.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Sweden was the first country to establish the office of Ombudsman in 1809 to supervise compliance with laws by civil and military authorities.
Question 37 of 100

37. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which one of the following statements describes a unitary system?
- Where the territorial divisions are subordinate agencies of the Central Government.
- Where the territorial divisions have coordinate status with the central Government
- A device to reconcile national unity with rights of the units.
- Where the functions of the government are vested in single individual.
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
A Unitary form of government centralizes all powers in the hands of a single central authority. Subdivisions exist only for administrative convenience and function under central control.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
A Unitary form of government centralizes all powers in the hands of a single central authority. Subdivisions exist only for administrative convenience and function under central control.
Question 38 of 100

38. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Equality as used in the Preamble includes equality of status and of opportunity.
Reason (R): Establishing a liberal society is an aim of the Preamble.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution aims to establish justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. A liberal society is not explicitly mentioned among its objectives.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution aims to establish justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity. A liberal society is not explicitly mentioned among its objectives.
Question 39 of 100

39. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): According to Gandhi, State will not be needed in a nonviolent society.
Reason (R): Ideal Society of Gandhi is Stateless.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi believed that a truly non-violent society would not require a state and supported the idea of a stateless, ideal society.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi believed that a truly non-violent society would not require a state and supported the idea of a stateless, ideal society.
Question 40 of 100

40. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The erstwhile State of Jammu and Kashmir has been given a special status.
Reason (R): It was accorded by the Indian Independence Act of 1947 itself.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The former state of Jammu and Kashmir enjoyed a special status in the Indian federal system, including its own constitution and flag, following its accession to India.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The former state of Jammu and Kashmir enjoyed a special status in the Indian federal system, including its own constitution and flag, following its accession to India.
Question 41 of 100

41. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Identify the correct chronological order of the formation of the following political parties in India
- Justice Party, Hindu Maha Sabha, National Conference, Shiromani Akali Dal
- National conference, Shiromani Akali Dal, Hindu Maha Sabha, Justice Party
- Hindu Maha Sabha, Shiromani Akali Dal, National Conference, Justice Party
- Justice Party, Shiromani Akali Dal, Hindu Maha Sabha, National Conference
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The chronological order of the formation of political parties in India is Justice Party (1917), Shiromani Akali Dal (1920), Hindu Mahasabha (1921), and National Conference (1932).

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The chronological order of the formation of political parties in India is Justice Party (1917), Shiromani Akali Dal (1920), Hindu Mahasabha (1921), and National Conference (1932).
Question 42 of 100

42. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
- Conditions of eligibility of a Governor: Article 158
- Dismissal of a Governor by the President: Article 156 (2)
- Nomination of members of Legislative Council by the Governor: Article 171 (5)
- Power of the Governor to recommend ‘Money Bill’: Article 207
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Article 156(2) of the Indian Constitution deals with the resignation of the Governor by submitting it to the President and does not relate to dismissal.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Article 156(2) of the Indian Constitution deals with the resignation of the Governor by submitting it to the President and does not relate to dismissal.
Question 43 of 100

43. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below
Statement I: The only mode of initiating a proposal for amendment is to introduce a bill in either house of the Union Parliament.
Statement II: If there is a disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament regarding the passage of a bill, the deadlock may be resolved by a joint session of the two Houses.
- Only Statement I is true
- Only Statement II is true.
- Both Statements I and II are true
- Both Statements I and II are false.
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
A joint session of Parliament is permitted for ordinary legislation but not for Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
A joint session of Parliament is permitted for ordinary legislation but not for Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills.

Question 44 of 100

44. Question

4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF

Match the following
List–I (Approach)	List–II (Characteristics)
A. 36th Constitutional Amendment Act	ii. Declaration of Sikkim as a full fledged state
B. 61th Constitutional Amendment Act	iii. Lowering of voting age from 21 to 18 years
C. 97th Constitutional Amendment Act	iv. Formation and functioning of cooperative societies
D. 99th Constitutional Amendment Act	i. Transparency in judicial appointments

A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

Correct

Answer: (4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
Explanation:
The 36th Constitutional Amendment made Sikkim a full-fledged state, the 61st Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18, the 97th Amendment addressed cooperative societies, and the 99th Amendment aimed at transparency in judicial appointments.

Incorrect

Question 45 of 100

45. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): In the first three general elections, India produced a ‘one party dominance’ model, which is different from one party system.
Reason (R): Till 1967, the Congress party had exclusive control over governmental power both at the Centre and also in most of the states of India.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The first three general elections in India were dominated by the Congress Party, though India did not become a one-party system as other parties were allowed to contest elections.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The first three general elections in India were dominated by the Congress Party, though India did not become a one-party system as other parties were allowed to contest elections.
Question 46 of 100

46. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Arrange the following Speakers of Lok Sabha of India in chronological order

I. Dr. Balram Jakhar
II. Dr. Gurdial Singh Dhillon
III. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
IV. Bali Ram Bhagat
- I, II, III, IV
- II, III, I, IV
- III, II, IV, I
- III, IV, II, I
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The correct chronological order of Lok Sabha Speakers is N.S. Reddy (1967–69), Gurdial Singh Dhillon (1969–75), Bali Ram Bhagat (1976–77), and Balram Jakhar (1980–89).

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The correct chronological order of Lok Sabha Speakers is N.S. Reddy (1967–69), Gurdial Singh Dhillon (1969–75), Bali Ram Bhagat (1976–77), and Balram Jakhar (1980–89).
Question 47 of 100

47. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following High Courts have Bench/Benches?
- Allahabad, Bombay, Jabalpur
- Jodhpur, Bombay, Hyderabad
- Calcutta, Guwahati, Bangalore
- Jabalpur, Madras, Guwahati
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Allahabad High Court serves Uttar Pradesh, Jabalpur High Court serves Madhya Pradesh, and Bombay High Court serves Bombay, Daman, and Diu.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Allahabad High Court serves Uttar Pradesh, Jabalpur High Court serves Madhya Pradesh, and Bombay High Court serves Bombay, Daman, and Diu.
Question 48 of 100

48. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
According to Peter Self, the study of public administration developed as an offshoot of which one of the following?
- Political Science or Public law
- Politics or Ethics
- Public Policy or Policy making
- Political system or interest aggregation
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Peter Self stated that Political Science and Public Law together contributed to the development of Public Administration.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Peter Self stated that Political Science and Public Law together contributed to the development of Public Administration.
Question 49 of 100

49. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which one of the following is not a part of the underlying ideas of traditional or mechanistic theory of organization?
- It takes an administrative view of human relationship.
- It considers economic incentives to be the sole motivating factor.
- It ignores the dynamics of organizational behaviour.
- It gives more importance to informal relationship.
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
According to Black’s Law Dictionary, a mechanistic organization is hierarchical and bureaucratic, characterized by centralized authority, formal procedures, and specialized functions, while ignoring informal relationships.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
According to Black’s Law Dictionary, a mechanistic organization is hierarchical and bureaucratic, characterized by centralized authority, formal procedures, and specialized functions, while ignoring informal relationships.
Question 50 of 100

50. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which one of the following key components of ‘governance’ was not identified by OECD, while laying down conditions for receiving economic assistance?
- Participatory development
- Strict auditing
- Human rights
- Democratisation
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Official Development Assistance (ODA) is provided by OECD DAC member countries to promote development and welfare in developing nations. Strict auditing is not among its governance criteria.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Official Development Assistance (ODA) is provided by OECD DAC member countries to promote development and welfare in developing nations. Strict auditing is not among its governance criteria.
Question 51 of 100

51. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who among the following thinkers advocated ‘effective communication’ as a basic prerequisite for the attainment of organizational goals?
- Herbert Simon
- Peter Self
- Chester Barnard
- Woodrow Wilson
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Chester Barnard proposed seven principles of communication necessary for establishing and maintaining objective authority in an organization, such as definite channels of communication and clear formal communication lines.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Chester Barnard proposed seven principles of communication necessary for establishing and maintaining objective authority in an organization, such as definite channels of communication and clear formal communication lines.
Question 52 of 100

52. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Taking an extreme view of the distinction between public and private administration, who said that all organizations share public and private features?
- Dwight Waldo
- E.S. Savas
- Barry Bozeman
- James W. Fesler
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
E.S. Savas, in his work “Privatization and Public-Private Partnership,” stated that all organizations share both public and private features.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
E.S. Savas, in his work “Privatization and Public-Private Partnership,” stated that all organizations share both public and private features.
Question 53 of 100

53. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Some departments are concerned not only with purely administrative work but some authority to make rules and regulations is also delegated to them by the legislature.
Reason (R): John M. Pfiffner prefers single head of the department under certain circumstances.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
John M. Pfiffner supported the single-head principle under certain circumstances. Both statements are correct, but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
John M. Pfiffner supported the single-head principle under certain circumstances. Both statements are correct, but the reason does not correctly explain the assertion.
Question 54 of 100

54. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
What is common among Duncan Black, Anthony Downs, James Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow?
- They are all advocates of Public Choice Theory in public administration.
- They are all ex-Cabinet Secretaries of UK
- They are all supporters of Whitley Councils in UK.
- They are all exponents of classical theories of administration
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Public Choice Theory applies economic principles to the study of public administration. It was developed by scholars such as Duncan Black, Anthony Downs, James Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Public Choice Theory applies economic principles to the study of public administration. It was developed by scholars such as Duncan Black, Anthony Downs, James Buchanan, and Kenneth Arrow.
Question 55 of 100

55. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Cybernetics means
- Science of communicating
- Communication methods
- Artificial intelligence
- Science of control and communication
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Cybernetics is the science of communication and control theory concerned with the study of automatic control systems in both biological and mechanical systems.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Cybernetics is the science of communication and control theory concerned with the study of automatic control systems in both biological and mechanical systems.
Question 56 of 100

56. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who among the following declared that the state is retreating in the face of the superior power of globalization?
- McLean and McMillan
- George Schwarzenberger
- Kenneth Waltz
- Susan Strange
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Susan Strange authored the book “The Retreat of the State,” arguing that globalization has reduced the power of the state.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Susan Strange authored the book “The Retreat of the State,” arguing that globalization has reduced the power of the state.
Question 57 of 100

57. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who among the following argued that ‘realism is likely to remain the single most useful instrument in our intellectual toolbox’?
- Holsti
- E.H. Carr
- Hans Morgenthau
- Stephen Walt
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Stephen Walt argued that realism would remain the most useful theoretical framework for understanding world politics even in the post–Cold War period.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Stephen Walt argued that realism would remain the most useful theoretical framework for understanding world politics even in the post–Cold War period.
Question 58 of 100

58. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Article 25 of the Charter of the United Nations provides that
- Use of force is allowed for selfdefence.
- Only peace loving states can become members of UN.
- All UN members agree to accept and carry-out the decisions of the Security Council.
- The Security Council has primary responsibility under the Charter for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Article 25 of the United Nations Charter requires member states to accept and carry out the decisions of the UN Security Council.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Article 25 of the United Nations Charter requires member states to accept and carry out the decisions of the UN Security Council.
Question 59 of 100

59. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following has not been incorporated into Indian law, either fully or partially?
- The Tokyo Convention Act 1975
- The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court.
- The Anti-Apartheid (United Nations Convention) Act, 1981
- The Geneva Convention Act, 1960
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
India has neither signed nor ratified the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court because it includes provisions on non-international armed conflicts.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
India has neither signed nor ratified the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court because it includes provisions on non-international armed conflicts.
Question 60 of 100

60. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding International Criminal Court?
- The statute of International Criminal Court was adopted by United Nations Conference onn 18th July, 1998.
- The International Criminal Court is not an organ of United Nations but it is an independent organization
- Its statute came into force on 1st July, 2002.
- The four organs of International Criminal Court are the Presidency, the Judicial Division, the office of the Prosecutor and the Registry.
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Rome Statute establishing the International Criminal Court came into force on 1 July 2002 after being adopted on 17 July 1998.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Rome Statute establishing the International Criminal Court came into force on 1 July 2002 after being adopted on 17 July 1998.
Question 61 of 100

61. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
In which year the UN General Assembly adopted the Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities?
- 2006
- 2007
- 2008
- 2009
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities was adopted in 2006 and entered into force in 2008, marking a shift toward recognizing persons with disabilities as rights-bearing individuals.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities was adopted in 2006 and entered into force in 2008, marking a shift toward recognizing persons with disabilities as rights-bearing individuals.

Question 62 of 100

62. Question

4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF

Match the following
List–I (Committee of General Assembly of UN)	List–II (Issues related to Committee)
A. First Committee	ii. Disarmament and international security
B. Second Committee	i. Economic and financial
C. Third Committee	iv. Social, humanitarian and cultural
D. Fourth Committee	iii. Special political and decolonisation

A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
A-(i),B-(ii),C-(iii),D-(iv)
A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

Correct

Answer: (1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
Explanation:
The First Committee of the UN General Assembly deals with disarmament and international security, the Second with economic and financial issues, the Third with social, humanitarian, and cultural issues, and the Fourth with special political and decolonization matters.

Incorrect

Question 63 of 100

63. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): End of Cold War signified a shift from ideological politics in International relations.
Reason (R): Religious fundamentalism is posing a threat to security.
- Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Religious fundamentalism poses a threat to global security and contributes to terrorism. After the Cold War, ideological politics in international relations changed significantly.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Religious fundamentalism poses a threat to global security and contributes to terrorism. After the Cold War, ideological politics in international relations changed significantly.
Question 64 of 100

64. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following statements is not true?
- Traditional political theory is qualitative.
- Behavioural political theory is quantitative.
- Post-behavioural political theory is both qualitative and quantitative
- Post-behavioural political theory is ethnocentric; focuses especially on western democracies.
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Post-behavioural political theories focus more on Third World nations and are less ethnocentric compared to behavioural political theory.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Post-behavioural political theories focus more on Third World nations and are less ethnocentric compared to behavioural political theory.
Question 65 of 100

65. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who among the following emphasized on ‘procedural theory of democracy’ highlighting three criteria?
- S.M. Lipset
- R.A. Dahl
- Joseph Schumpeter
- Sheldon Wolin
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Robert Dahl presented his model of procedural democracy in his book “Democracy and Its Critics.”

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Robert Dahl presented his model of procedural democracy in his book “Democracy and Its Critics.”
Question 66 of 100

66. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which one of the following is not a formulation of Max Weber?
- Rationality, functional differentiation and specialization resulting in order, harmony and efficiency
- Dominant authority based on beliefs and symbols in relation to ideal types.
- Dominant authority is hierarchical and related to state and ruling class
- Rationalization and ideal typology method.
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Max Weber’s bureaucratic theory views bureaucracy as essential for organizational efficiency but does not associate dominant authority with a ruling class or state hierarchy.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Max Weber’s bureaucratic theory views bureaucracy as essential for organizational efficiency but does not associate dominant authority with a ruling class or state hierarchy.
Question 67 of 100

67. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who said that federalism requires a people “Who desire union and must not desire unity”?
- James Bryce
- A.V. Dicey
- K.C. Wheare
- H. Finer
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
According to A.V. Dicey, the desire for union rather than unity is essential for forming a federation, allowing states to retain their identities.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
According to A.V. Dicey, the desire for union rather than unity is essential for forming a federation, allowing states to retain their identities.
Question 68 of 100

68. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who said that federalism requires a people “Who desire union and must not desire unity”?
- James Bryce
- A.V. Dicey
- K.C. Wheare
- H. Finer
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
According to A.V. Dicey, the desire for union rather than unity is essential for forming a federation, allowing states to retain their identities.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
According to A.V. Dicey, the desire for union rather than unity is essential for forming a federation, allowing states to retain their identities.
Question 69 of 100

69. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The assertion that there is no direct connection between the shape of a political culture and the stability of governance is made by
- Lijphart
- Wolin
- Kavanagh
- Blondel
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Arend Lijphart argued that political culture has little direct impact on the stability of governance.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Arend Lijphart argued that political culture has little direct impact on the stability of governance.
Question 70 of 100

70. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The ability of the U.S. President to get their way depends on four crucial relationships which of the above is undoubtedly the most critical?
- The Congress
- The Federal Bureaucracy
- The Supreme Court
- The Mass Media
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The United States House of Representatives acts as a major check on presidential power, particularly through its control over funding.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The United States House of Representatives acts as a major check on presidential power, particularly through its control over funding.
Question 71 of 100

71. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who said, “The Constituent Assembly was a one party body in an essentially one party country. The Assembly was the congress and the congress was India”?
- Morris Jones
- Paul R. Brass
- Granville Austin
- Richard Sisson
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Granville Austin observed that the Constituent Assembly of India was dominated by the Congress Party, describing it as a one-party body in an essentially one-party country.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Granville Austin observed that the Constituent Assembly of India was dominated by the Congress Party, describing it as a one-party body in an essentially one-party country.

Question 72 of 100

72. Question

4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF

Match the following
List–I (Books)	List–II (Authors)
A. The Child and the State in India	iv. Myron Weiner
B. The Hindu Nationalist Movement and Indian Politics	iii. Christophe Jaffrelot
C. The Political Economy of Development in India	ii. Pranab Bardhan
D. Poverty Amid Plenty in the New India	i. Atul Kohli

A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

Correct

Answer: (2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
Explanation:
The correct author–book pairs are Myron Weiner for “The Child and the State in India,” Christophe Jaffrelot for “The Hindu Nationalist Movement and Indian Politics,” Pranab Bardhan for “The Political Economy of Development in India,” and Atul Kohli for “Poverty Amid Plenty in the New India.”

Incorrect

Question 73 of 100

73. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following have been identified as the ground for judicial review in the exercise of power of pardon by the President of India or Governor of a state?
- that the order has been passed without application of mind.
- that the order is malafide.
- that the order is based on extraneous or wholly irrelevant considerations.
- that the order suffers from arbitrariness
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
In the Epuru Sudhakar case, the Supreme Court allowed limited judicial review of pardon powers to prevent arbitrariness, mala fide intent, and irrelevant considerations.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
In the Epuru Sudhakar case, the Supreme Court allowed limited judicial review of pardon powers to prevent arbitrariness, mala fide intent, and irrelevant considerations.
Question 74 of 100

74. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Arrange the following peasant movements in India in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below

i. Singur

ii. Bardoli

iii. Tebhaga

iv. Champaran
- iv, iii, i, ii
- iv, ii, iii, i
- ii, iii, iv, i
- i, ii, iii, iv
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The correct chronological order of peasant movements in India is Champaran Satyagraha (1917), Bardoli Satyagraha (1928), Tebhaga Andolan (1946–47), and Singur Andolan (2006).

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The correct chronological order of peasant movements in India is Champaran Satyagraha (1917), Bardoli Satyagraha (1928), Tebhaga Andolan (1946–47), and Singur Andolan (2006).
Question 75 of 100

75. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Identify the correct chronological order of the developments of events related to federalism in India.
- Anandpur Sahib Resolution, Rajamannar committee, Punchhi Commission, West Bengal Memorandum
- West Bengal Memorandum, Rajamannar Committee, Anandpur Sahib Resolution, Punchhi Commission
- Rajamannar Committee, West Bengal Memorandum, Anandpur Sahib Resolution, Punchhi Commission
- Rajamannar Committee, Anandpur Sahib Resolution, West Bengal Memorandum, Punchhi Commission
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The chronological order of federalism-related events in India is Rajamannar Committee (1969), Anandpur Sahib Resolution (1973), West Bengal Memorandum (1977), and Punchhi Commission (2007).

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The chronological order of federalism-related events in India is Rajamannar Committee (1969), Anandpur Sahib Resolution (1973), West Bengal Memorandum (1977), and Punchhi Commission (2007).
Question 76 of 100

76. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who described Indian capitalism as “Dharmashala Capitalism”?
- V.K.R.V. Rao
- J. Bhagwati
- Amartya Sen
- Raj Krishna
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Raj Krishna coined the term “Hindu Rate of Growth” to describe India’s low GDP growth between the 1950s and 1980s and also proposed the Dharamshala Model.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Raj Krishna coined the term “Hindu Rate of Growth” to describe India’s low GDP growth between the 1950s and 1980s and also proposed the Dharamshala Model.
Question 77 of 100

77. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following is not associated with electoral reforms in India?
- Tarkunde Committee
- Dinesh Goswami Committee
- N.N. Vohra Committee
- Indrajit Gupta Committee
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The N.N. Vohra Committee was constituted in 1993 to examine the problem of criminalization of politics and the nexus between criminals, politicians, and bureaucrats.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The N.N. Vohra Committee was constituted in 1993 to examine the problem of criminalization of politics and the nexus between criminals, politicians, and bureaucrats.
Question 78 of 100

78. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
In India, the term deficit financing was first defined by
- First Five Year Plan
- Finance Commission
- Administrative Reforms Commission
- A.D. Gorwala Report
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Deficit financing refers to a situation where government expenditure exceeds revenue and the gap is met through borrowing or printing new money. In India, it was introduced during the First Five-Year Plan.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Deficit financing refers to a situation where government expenditure exceeds revenue and the gap is met through borrowing or printing new money. In India, it was introduced during the First Five-Year Plan.
Question 79 of 100

79. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following types of bureaucracy regards itself as the custodian of public interest but is independent of and unresponsive to public opinion?
- Merit bureaucracy
- Caste bureaucracy
- Patronage bureaucracy
- Guardian bureaucracy
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Plato’s concept of the philosopher king represents guardian bureaucracy, where rulers are trained in right conduct and act as custodians of justice and welfare.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Plato’s concept of the philosopher king represents guardian bureaucracy, where rulers are trained in right conduct and act as custodians of justice and welfare.
Question 80 of 100

80. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following are the common features between the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act and the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act?

(i) Periodical elections.
(ii) Empowerment of socially and economically weak groups.
(iii) Constitution of State Election Commission.
(iv) Constitution of Ward Committees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
- (i) and (iii)
- (i), (ii) and (iii)
- (i), (iii) and (iv)
- (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Common features of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments include periodic elections, State Election Commissions, State Finance Commissions, and empowerment of socially and economically backward groups.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Common features of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments include periodic elections, State Election Commissions, State Finance Commissions, and empowerment of socially and economically backward groups.
Question 81 of 100

81. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which country/countries refused to accept legally binding emission cuts following Kyoto Protocol?
- India
- China
- India and China both
- Sweden
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
India and China rejected binding emission targets under the Kyoto Protocol, advocating the principle of “Common but Differentiated Responsibility.”

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
India and China rejected binding emission targets under the Kyoto Protocol, advocating the principle of “Common but Differentiated Responsibility.”
Question 82 of 100

82. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which leader of the USSR introduced the policy of ‘peaceful-coexistence’?
- Mikhail Gorbachev
- N. Khrushchev
- L. Brezhnev
- Joseph Stalin
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Soviet theory of peaceful coexistence argued that capitalist and socialist states could coexist without war, a policy promoted by Nikita Khrushchev.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Soviet theory of peaceful coexistence argued that capitalist and socialist states could coexist without war, a policy promoted by Nikita Khrushchev.
Question 83 of 100

83. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
At the end of cold war Francis Fukuyama constructed the thesis of ‘end of history’ which meant
- The world would no longer be unfolding events.
- The tension and conflict would cease to exist at global level
- Ideological struggles had come to an end
- Ideological struggles would be waged with new vigour
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Francis Fukuyama’s book “The End of History and the Last Man” (1992) argued that ideological conflict ended with the Cold War, leaving liberal democracy dominant.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Francis Fukuyama’s book “The End of History and the Last Man” (1992) argued that ideological conflict ended with the Cold War, leaving liberal democracy dominant.
Question 84 of 100

84. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
NATO’s partnership for peace programme was aimed at
- Incorporating ex-Eastern bloc states into the organisation
- Tackling problem of Serbs in Bosnia.
- Implementing military action against Yugoslavia
- Taking action against Al Asad Regime in Syria
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Partnership for Peace (PfP) is a NATO program that promotes bilateral cooperation with partner countries, allowing them to choose their priorities.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Partnership for Peace (PfP) is a NATO program that promotes bilateral cooperation with partner countries, allowing them to choose their priorities.
Question 85 of 100

85. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the events mentioned below is taken as signalling the end of Cold War?
- Soviet Union’s collapse in 1991n
- Breaching of Berlin Wall in 1989
- Declaration of independence by Republic of Kazakhstan in 1991
- Large scale revolt for freedom in Baltic States in 1989
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989 symbolized the beginning of the end of the Cold War and led to the unification of Germany.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The fall of the Berlin Wall in 1989 symbolized the beginning of the end of the Cold War and led to the unification of Germany.
Question 86 of 100

86. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The renaming of European Community (EC) to European Union resulted from the signing of
- Maastricht Treaty
- Treaty of Rome
- The Lisbon Treaty
- Treaty of Nice
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Maastricht Treaty, signed on 7 February 1992, led to the formation of the European Union and advanced European integration.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Maastricht Treaty, signed on 7 February 1992, led to the formation of the European Union and advanced European integration.
Question 87 of 100

87. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which of the following is not a specialized agency of the United Nations?
- WHO
- IMF
- FAO
- OPEC
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization formed in 1960 and functions as a petroleum cartel. It is not a specialized agency of the United Nations.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization formed in 1960 and functions as a petroleum cartel. It is not a specialized agency of the United Nations.
Question 88 of 100

88. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
C. Wright Mills, The Power Elite (1956) offered a general analysis of elites in
- Entire capitalistic world
- Developed capitalistic world of North America and Western Europe
- Developed capitalistic nations of North America, Western Europe and Japan
- Developed capitalism of the U.S.A.
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
C. Wright Mills, in his book “The Power Elite” (1956), analyzed how military, economic, and political elites dominate decision-making in the United States.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
C. Wright Mills, in his book “The Power Elite” (1956), analyzed how military, economic, and political elites dominate decision-making in the United States.
Question 89 of 100

89. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Power is like money is formulated by
- C. Wright Mills
- Paul Sweezy
- Talcott Parsons
- Ralph Milibandn
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Talcott Parsons viewed power as analogous to money in an economic system, highlighting its role as a medium in political systems.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Talcott Parsons viewed power as analogous to money in an economic system, highlighting its role as a medium in political systems.
Question 90 of 100

90. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Catch all party describes the post second world war party system in
- Western Europe
- Eastern Europe
- The U.S. Party system
- All of the above
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
A catch-all or big-tent party seeks support from diverse ideological groups. Such parties became prominent in Western Europe after World War II.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
A catch-all or big-tent party seeks support from diverse ideological groups. Such parties became prominent in Western Europe after World War II.
Question 91 of 100

91. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Direction: Read the following Passage and answer the following five question:

The Panchayati Raj System in India was first adopted by the state of Rajasthan in Nagaur district on 2 October 1959. Andhra Pradesh became the second state to introduce the system, while Maharashtra was the ninth. At present, Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) function as an important system of local self-governance in India, with Gram Panchayats serving as the basic units of local administration. The system operates at three levels: the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti or Block Samiti (also known as Mandal Parishad) at the block level, and the Zila Parishad at the district level. This structure was formally constitutionalized in 1992 through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, which provides for the devolution of powers and responsibilities to Panchayats. These include the preparation and implementation of socio-economic development plans and the authority to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees. However, the transfer of powers and financial resources to the PRIs ultimately rests with the respective state governments.

Which State was the first to adopt Panchayati Raj system?
- Gujarat
- West Bengal
- Rajasthan
- Madhya Pradesh
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Panchayati Raj System was first implemented in Rajasthan at Nagaur district on 2 October 1959.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Panchayati Raj System was first implemented in Rajasthan at Nagaur district on 2 October 1959.
Question 92 of 100

92. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which year Panchayati Raj system was Constitutionalised in India?
- 1947
- 1950
- 1959
- 1992
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Panchayati Raj System was constitutionally formalized by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which provided for devolution of powers to local bodies.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Panchayati Raj System was constitutionally formalized by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which provided for devolution of powers to local bodies.
Question 93 of 100

93. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The Panchayati Raj System in India has
- Two-Tier
- Three-Tier
- Four-Tier
- None
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Panchayati Raj Institutions in India function at three levels: Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti (Block level), and Zila Parishad (District level).

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Panchayati Raj Institutions in India function at three levels: Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti (Block level), and Zila Parishad (District level).
Question 94 of 100

94. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The election for Panchayat in India are conducted by
- Election Commission of India
- State Election Commission of India
- State Government
- None
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
State Election Commissions were established after the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments to conduct elections for Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
State Election Commissions were established after the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments to conduct elections for Panchayats and Urban Local Bodies.
Question 95 of 100

95. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Which organisation decides the distribution of taxes between State government and Panchayati Raj system?
- State Finance department
- State Finance Commission
- Union Finance Ministry
- President of India
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
State Finance Commissions were constituted after the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments to decide the distribution of financial resources between the state and local bodies.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
State Finance Commissions were constituted after the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments to decide the distribution of financial resources between the state and local bodies.
Question 96 of 100

96. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Negative freedom upholds the notion of
- Unencumbered self
- Encumbered self
- Distant self
- Social self
Correct

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Isaiah Berlin supported negative liberty, emphasizing freedom from interference and warning that excessive state control could lead to despotism.

Incorrect

Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Isaiah Berlin supported negative liberty, emphasizing freedom from interference and warning that excessive state control could lead to despotism.
Question 97 of 100

97. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who argued that positive liberty enables the individual to take control of their life.
- Robert Nozick
- Isaiah Berlin
- William Beveridge
- T.H Green
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Positive liberty, according to Isaiah Berlin, refers to the ability of individuals to control their own lives and act upon their free will.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Positive liberty, according to Isaiah Berlin, refers to the ability of individuals to control their own lives and act upon their free will.
Question 98 of 100

98. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
‘The role of the state must therefore be limited to that of a nightwatchman’ this statement is supporting?
- Positive Liberty
- Negative Liberty
- Both
- None
Correct

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Negative liberty demands a limited role of the state, while positive liberty supports a larger role for state intervention, especially in economic policy.

Incorrect

Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Negative liberty demands a limited role of the state, while positive liberty supports a larger role for state intervention, especially in economic policy.
Question 99 of 100

99. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
The role of the _________ is an absolutely key dividing line within liberal thought between those on the right of the libertarian axis and those on the left.
- Individual
- Society
- State
- Family
Correct

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The role of the state is a central dividing line within liberal thought, separating libertarian and welfare-oriented liberals.

Incorrect

Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The role of the state is a central dividing line within liberal thought, separating libertarian and welfare-oriented liberals.
Question 100 of 100

100. Question
4 points

Category: UGC NET/JRF
Who among the following is a supporter of Negative Liberty?
- John Rawls
- J.S Mill
- T.H Green
- Robert Nozick
Correct

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Robert Nozick opposed state welfarism and supported negative liberty, advocating for a minimal state with limited functions.

Incorrect

Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Robert Nozick opposed state welfarism and supported negative liberty, advocating for a minimal state with limited functions.

Match the following
List–I	List–II
A. Karl Kautsky	i. Marxism
B. Robert Owen	ii. Socialism
C. John Locke	iii. Liberalism
D. Clinton Rossiter	iv. Conservatism

JRF Advanced Level 6 Political Science Mock Test

Advanced Level Test 6

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