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Match List I with List II:
List- I | List- II |
---|---|
(a) The World Bank | i) 1957 |
b) World Trade Organisation | ii) 1945 |
(c) World Health Organisation | iii) 1948 |
(d) International Atomic Energy Agency | iv) 1995 |
Answer (a)
List- I | List- II |
---|---|
(a) The World Bank | i) 1945 |
b) World Trade Organisation | ii) 1995 |
(c) World Health Organisation | iii) 1948 |
(d) International Atomic Energy Agency | iv) 1957 |
Answer (a)
List- I | List- II |
---|---|
(a) The World Bank | i) 1945 |
b) World Trade Organisation | ii) 1995 |
(c) World Health Organisation | iii) 1948 |
(d) International Atomic Energy Agency | iv) 1957 |
Match List I with List II:
List- I | List- II |
---|---|
(a) Karl Kautsky | i) Marxism |
b) Robert Owen | ii) Socialism |
(c) John Locke | iii) Liberalism |
(d) Clinton Rossiter | iv) Consevatism |
Match List I with List II:
List- I | List- II |
---|---|
(a) Karl Kautsky | i) Marxism |
b) Robert Owen | ii) Socialism |
(c) John Locke | iii) Liberalism |
(d) Clinton Rossiter | iv) Consevatism |
Match List I with List II:
List- I | List- II |
---|---|
(a) Karl Kautsky | i) Marxism |
b) Robert Owen | ii) Socialism |
(c) John Locke | iii) Liberalism |
(d) Clinton Rossiter | iv) Consevatism |
Who among the following are associated with early socialism sometimes termed as ‘utopian socialist’?
1. Robert Owen
2. Saint Simon
3. Charles Fourier
4. Proudhan
(c) The Early-19th-century followers of the utopian theories and Socialism were thinkers like Robert Owen, Claude Henri de Saint-Simon and Charles Fourier.
(c) The Early-19th-century followers of the utopian theories and Socialism were thinkers like Robert Owen, Claude Henri de Saint-Simon and Charles Fourier.
Gulf Cooperation Council was founded in year
(c) Established in 1981, the GCC promotes economic, security, cultural and social cooperation between the six states and holds a summit every year to discuss cooperation and regional affairs.
(c) Established in 1981, the GCC promotes economic, security, cultural and social cooperation between the six states and holds a summit every year to discuss cooperation and regional affairs.
What is the full form of TRIMS?
(b) The Agreement on Trade Related Investment Measures are rules that are applicable to the domestic regulations a country applies to foreign investors, often as part of an industrial policy. It is related to WTO.
(b) The Agreement on Trade Related Investment Measures are rules that are applicable to the domestic regulations a country applies to foreign investors, often as part of an industrial policy. It is related to WTO.
Agreement on Agricultural is related to which international Organisation?
(d) The WTO Agreement on Agriculture was one of the many agreements which were negotiated during the Uruguay Round. The implementation of the Agreement on Agriculture started with effect from 1.1.1995. As per the provisions of the Agreement, the developed countries would complete their reduction commitments within 6 years, i.e., by the year 2000, whereas the commitments of the developing countries would be completed within 10 years, i.e., by the year 2004. The least developed countries are not required to make any reductions.
(d) The WTO Agreement on Agriculture was one of the many agreements which were negotiated during the Uruguay Round. The implementation of the Agreement on Agriculture started with effect from 1.1.1995. As per the provisions of the Agreement, the developed countries would complete their reduction commitments within 6 years, i.e., by the year 2000, whereas the commitments of the developing countries would be completed within 10 years, i.e., by the year 2004. The least developed countries are not required to make any reductions.
Gujral Doctrine in Indian foreign Policy was introduced by former Prime Minister I.K. Gujral to
Gujral Doctrine(c) The Gujral doctrine was a five point roadmap which sought to build trust between India and neighbours, of solution to bilateral issues through bilateral talks and to remove immediate in Indian foreign Policy was introduced by former Prime Minister I.K. Gujral to quid pro quos in diplomatic relationship between India and her neighbours. The ‘Doctrine’ emphasized on the importance of unilateral accommodation for friendly and warm relations with India’s neighbours.
Gujral Doctrine(c) The Gujral doctrine was a five point roadmap which sought to build trust between India and neighbours, of solution to bilateral issues through bilateral talks and to remove immediate in Indian foreign Policy was introduced by former Prime Minister I.K. Gujral to quid pro quos in diplomatic relationship between India and her neighbours. The ‘Doctrine’ emphasized on the importance of unilateral accommodation for friendly and warm relations with India’s neighbours.
The Act East Foreign Policy of Modi Government is related to
(d) India’s Act East Policy focuses on the extended neighbourhood in the Asia-Pacific region. India has upgraded its relations to strategic partnership with Indonesia, Vietnam, Malaysia, Japan, Republic of Korea (ROK), Australia, Singapore and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and forged close ties with all countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
(d) India’s Act East Policy focuses on the extended neighbourhood in the Asia-Pacific region. India has upgraded its relations to strategic partnership with Indonesia, Vietnam, Malaysia, Japan, Republic of Korea (ROK), Australia, Singapore and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and forged close ties with all countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
India became the member of Shanghai cooperation Organisation in year
(c) India and Pakistan joined SCO as full members on 9 June 2017 at a summit in Astana, Kazakhstan.
(c) India and Pakistan joined SCO as full members on 9 June 2017 at a summit in Astana, Kazakhstan.
The Theme of the 11th BRICS summit held in Brazil was
(a) The 11th BRICS Summit held in Brasília, Brazil. The 2019 Brazilian Presidency focused on the theme, ‘BRICS: Economic Growth for an Innovative Future’.
(a) The 11th BRICS Summit held in Brasília, Brazil. The 2019 Brazilian Presidency focused on the theme, ‘BRICS: Economic Growth for an Innovative Future’.
Consider the following pairs:
Constitutional Provisions | Borrowed from |
---|---|
1. Fundamental Rights : | United States |
2. Idea of Residual power : | Canada |
3. Rule of the law : | Britain |
4. Power of judicial review : | France |
5. Directive Principles of States Policy: | Ireland |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(c) The power of Judicial review was borrowed from the United States. All the other pairs are correctly matched.
(c) The power of Judicial review was borrowed from the United States. All the other pairs are correctly matched.
With reference to the members of the constituent assembly, consider the following statements:
1. Different communities were represented in proportion to their population.
2. Princely states were given no representation.
3. Both Mahatma Gandhi and M. A. Jinnah were members of constituent assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(b) The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities, Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations. Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their own representatives by the method of proportional representation with single transferable vote. Statement 2 is incorrect – The method of selection in the case of representatives of Princely States was to be determined by consultation. Total 93 seats allotted to the princely states. Statement 3 is incorrect – Mahatma Gandhi and M. A. Jinnah, these two personalities were not the part of the constituent assembly.
(b) The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities, Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations. Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their own representatives by the method of proportional representation with single transferable vote. Statement 2 is incorrect – The method of selection in the case of representatives of Princely States was to be determined by consultation. Total 93 seats allotted to the princely states. Statement 3 is incorrect – Mahatma Gandhi and M. A. Jinnah, these two personalities were not the part of the constituent assembly.
Which of the following is considered as ‘Magna Carta of the Company’?
(b) In 1717, the Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar’s Farmans, called Magna Carta of the East India Company, gave significant privileges to the company in Bengal, Gujarat and Hyderabad.
(b) In 1717, the Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar’s Farmans, called Magna Carta of the East India Company, gave significant privileges to the company in Bengal, Gujarat and Hyderabad.
Consider the following statements: The function(s) of the Finance Commission is/are:
1. To allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. To allocated between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes.
3. To consider applications for grants-in-aid from States.
4. To supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(b) Functions of Finance Commission are to recommend: 1. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the State. 2. The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the States by the Centre. 3. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State.
(b) Functions of Finance Commission are to recommend: 1. The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the State. 2. The principles that should govern the grants-in-aid to the States by the Centre. 3. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State.
According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(c) National Human Rights Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members. The Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India, and other members should be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court, and two persons having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
(c) National Human Rights Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members. The Chairman should be a retired Chief Justice of India, and other members should be a serving or retired Chief Justice of a High Court, and two persons having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
(a) Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc. Article 45 – Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years. Article 300 – Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the House of the People. Article 368 – Power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution.
(a) Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc. Article 45 – Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years. Article 300 – Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the House of the People. Article 368 – Power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution.
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(d) Fourth Schedule (Article 4(1) and 82(2)) is about the allocation of seats in the Council of States. Distribution of powers between the Union and the States – Seventh Schedule. Language listed in Eighth Schedule. Administration of Tribal areas in Sixth Schedule.
(d) Fourth Schedule (Article 4(1) and 82(2)) is about the allocation of seats in the Council of States. Distribution of powers between the Union and the States – Seventh Schedule. Language listed in Eighth Schedule. Administration of Tribal areas in Sixth Schedule.
As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
(a) The order of Precedence for the given optional is Governor of a State within his state > Former Presidents. Deputy Prime Minister > Lok Sabha Speaker.
(a) The order of Precedence for the given optional is Governor of a State within his state > Former Presidents. Deputy Prime Minister > Lok Sabha Speaker.
Consider the following statements:
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6–14 years age group by the State was made a Fundamental Right by the 76th Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment, 1976 to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) The Parliament has passed the 86th Amendment Act (but not 76th) 2002, to make elementary education a Fundamental Right for children in the age-group of 6-14 years. SSA (Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan) seeks to achieve the long-cherished goal of Universalization of Elementary Education (UEE). It seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas. 42nd Amendment Act shifted five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List viz. Education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
(c) The Parliament has passed the 86th Amendment Act (but not 76th) 2002, to make elementary education a Fundamental Right for children in the age-group of 6-14 years. SSA (Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan) seeks to achieve the long-cherished goal of Universalization of Elementary Education (UEE). It seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas. 42nd Amendment Act shifted five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List viz. Education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Who was the Chief Justice of India when public interest litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian Judicial System?
(d) P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when PIL concept was developed in the Indian Judicial System in 1981 (by widening the concept of ‘Locus standi’ in SP Gupta vs. Union of India case by the apex court).
(d) P.N. Bhagwati was the Chief Justice of India when PIL concept was developed in the Indian Judicial System in 1981 (by widening the concept of ‘Locus standi’ in SP Gupta vs. Union of India case by the apex court).
Arrange the following writs in the correct sequence as given in the Indian Constitution:
(i) Certiorari
(ii) Habeas Corpus
(iii) Quo Warranto
(iv) Prohibition
(v) Mandamus
Codes:
(c) The correct sequence as per constitution of India of all the writs under article 32 are: Habeas Corpus, mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto at last.
(c) The correct sequence as per constitution of India of all the writs under article 32 are: Habeas Corpus, mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto at last.
Arrange the following in their chronological sequence:
(i) Cripps Mission
(ii) Montague Chelmsford Report
(iii) Simon Commission
(iv) Morley–Minto Reforms
(b) The sequence of political as well as the administrative steps taken by the British administration in India is as follows: Morley-Minto Reform in 1909, Montague-Chelmsford report in 1919, Simon commission in 1927 and Cripps Mission in 1942.
(b) The sequence of political as well as the administrative steps taken by the British administration in India is as follows: Morley-Minto Reform in 1909, Montague-Chelmsford report in 1919, Simon commission in 1927 and Cripps Mission in 1942.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Match List I with List II:
List-I (Parties) | List- II (Characteristic) |
---|---|
(A) Indian National Congress | i) National Party |
(B) Telugu Desam Party | ii) State Party |
(C) Kerala Congress | iii) Umbrella Party |
(D) Communist Party of India (Marxist) | iv) Regional Party |
Codes:
(c)
List-I (Parties) | List- II (Characteristic) |
---|---|
Indian National Congress | Umbrella Party |
Telugu Desam Party | Regional Party |
Kerala Congress | State Party |
Communist Party of India (Marxist) | National Party |
(c)
List-I (Parties) | List- II (Characteristic) |
---|---|
Indian National Congress | Umbrella Party |
Telugu Desam Party | Regional Party |
Kerala Congress | State Party |
Communist Party of India (Marxist) | National Party |
Which one of the following was denounced by congress as “inadequate, unsatisfactory and disappointing”?
(b) The Montague-Chelmsford reforms were set out in the government of India act of 1919. If the British thought that they would be welcomed by Indians but they were mistaken.
Many Indians had fought with British in the war. The congress and the League had come together, calling for safe rule, and they were disappointed by the new structure. At a session of congress in August 1918 the reforms were condemned as ‘inadequate, unsatisfactory and disappointing’. Only moderates in Congress supported the measures and they were excluded from the party. The local people had more say in how their country was governed but the British maintained their power by ensuring that the viceroy had the authority to govern India.
(b) The Montague-Chelmsford reforms were set out in the government of India act of 1919. If the British thought that they would be welcomed by Indians but they were mistaken.
Many Indians had fought with British in the war. The congress and the League had come together, calling for safe rule, and they were disappointed by the new structure. At a session of congress in August 1918 the reforms were condemned as ‘inadequate, unsatisfactory and disappointing’. Only moderates in Congress supported the measures and they were excluded from the party. The local people had more say in how their country was governed but the British maintained their power by ensuring that the viceroy had the authority to govern India.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A federal arrangement aims at reconciling freedom with unity and diversity of political cultures and identities with effective collective action.
Reason (R): India opted for a pluralistic model of nation building.
Codes:
(b) Both the statements are true but they don’t have any relation among them. The second statement is not a reason behind the assertion made in the first statement.
(b) Both the statements are true but they don’t have any relation among them. The second statement is not a reason behind the assertion made in the first statement.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List- I (Articles) | List- II (Provisions) |
---|---|
(A) 359 | i) Financial Emergency |
(B) 312 | ii) Finance Commission |
(C) 280 | iii) Suspension of Fundamental Rights |
(D) 360 | iv) All India Services |
(a) Article 359 – Suspension of fundamental rights
Article 312 – All Indian Services
Article 280 – Finance Commission
Article 360 – Financial emergency
(a) Article 359 – Suspension of fundamental rights
Article 312 – All Indian Services
Article 280 – Finance Commission
Article 360 – Financial emergency
Who among the following has created eighteen definitions of public administration and put them in four categories of political, legal, occupational and managerial?
(b) Shafritz and Russell has provided 18 definitions of public administration. They have categorised all these definitions under four heads that are political, legal, occupational and managerial.
(b) Shafritz and Russell has provided 18 definitions of public administration. They have categorised all these definitions under four heads that are political, legal, occupational and managerial.
Who among the following has not made a distinction between public and private administration?
(a) The administrative management theory by Henri Fayol. He did not made any distinction between public and private administration. Fayol was a French who had worked in a coal industry for over thirty years. This theory focuses on the organization as a whole. In his book, Henri identified five key functional areas which include; controlling, coordinating, planning, organising and directing.
(a) The administrative management theory by Henri Fayol. He did not made any distinction between public and private administration. Fayol was a French who had worked in a coal industry for over thirty years. This theory focuses on the organization as a whole. In his book, Henri identified five key functional areas which include; controlling, coordinating, planning, organising and directing.
What is the correct chronological sequence of the following reports?
1. A. D. Gorwala Report
2. Paul H. Appleby Report
3. Santhanam Committee Report
4. First Administrative Reforms Commission Report.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) The Correct sequence of the report related to administration are as follows; A.D. Gorwala report in 1951, Paul H. Appleby Report in 1953, Santhanam Committee report in 1962 and Fist Administrative reforms Commission Report 1966.
(a) The Correct sequence of the report related to administration are as follows; A.D. Gorwala report in 1951, Paul H. Appleby Report in 1953, Santhanam Committee report in 1962 and Fist Administrative reforms Commission Report 1966.
Max Weber used the Greek word ‘Charisma’ to refer to
1. qualities acquired by experience
2. inherited qualities
3. supernatural qualities
4. super human qualities
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(d) Weber applies the term charisma to certain quality of an individual personality, by virtue of which he is set apart from ordinary men and treated as endowed with supernatural, superhuman, or at least specifically exceptional powers or qualities. These are such as are not accessible to the ordinary person, but are regarded as of divine origin or as exemplary, and on the basis of them the individual concerned is treated as a leader.
(d) Weber applies the term charisma to certain quality of an individual personality, by virtue of which he is set apart from ordinary men and treated as endowed with supernatural, superhuman, or at least specifically exceptional powers or qualities. These are such as are not accessible to the ordinary person, but are regarded as of divine origin or as exemplary, and on the basis of them the individual concerned is treated as a leader.
Which one of the following is not correct regarding Marx’s theory of alienation?
(d)
(d)
Who of the following is of the view that it is not Gandhi who made Satyagraha but it is Satyagraha which made Gandhi the Mahatma?
(b) World leaders struck a new political accord to address climate change at the 2009, U.N. Climate Summit in Copenhagen, Denmark. The accord provided for explicit emission pledges by all major economies–including, for the first time, China and other major developing countries.
(b) World leaders struck a new political accord to address climate change at the 2009, U.N. Climate Summit in Copenhagen, Denmark. The accord provided for explicit emission pledges by all major economies–including, for the first time, China and other major developing countries.
In which of the following countries Narendranath Bhattacharya settled under the name of Manabendra Nath Roy?
(b)
Organisation of American States – 1948
North Atlantic Free trade agreement – 1994
Arab Maghreb Union (AMU) – 1989
South East Asian Treaty Organisation – 1954
(b)
Organisation of American States – 1948
North Atlantic Free trade agreement – 1994
Arab Maghreb Union (AMU) – 1989
South East Asian Treaty Organisation – 1954
Who of the following said that God had appeared to him in prison, placed the Gita in his hands and made him realize the simple truths of the Sanatana Dharma?
(b) Yes, Its true that India is pursuing a positive asymmetry in South Asia. India is also contained by Pakistan and china partnership. Both the statement are true but the second statement is not true reason behind the assertion statement.
(b) Yes, Its true that India is pursuing a positive asymmetry in South Asia. India is also contained by Pakistan and china partnership. Both the statement are true but the second statement is not true reason behind the assertion statement.
Comparative Politics is the study of
(c) Pakistan’s Arms Procurement and Military Buildup, 1979-99: In Search of a Policy was written by Ayesha Siddiqa Agha. This book presents a fundamental departure in presenting an analysis of the internal dynamics of defence management and decision making in Pakistan – a new nuclear weapon state. This is an in-depth study of Pakistan’s security link with its arms suppliers and defence industrial capacity, and the influence of Pakistan’s Army on conventional and non-conventional defence decisions.
(c) Pakistan’s Arms Procurement and Military Buildup, 1979-99: In Search of a Policy was written by Ayesha Siddiqa Agha. This book presents a fundamental departure in presenting an analysis of the internal dynamics of defence management and decision making in Pakistan – a new nuclear weapon state. This is an in-depth study of Pakistan’s security link with its arms suppliers and defence industrial capacity, and the influence of Pakistan’s Army on conventional and non-conventional defence decisions.
What is the correct sequence in which the following approaches to the study of ‘Comparative Politics’ emerged?
1. Philosophical Approach
2. Systems Approach
3. New Institutional Approach
4. Behavioural Approach
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(c) In his criticism of Lenin led revolution and his theory of revolution in Russian, G.H Sabine said that “Lenin’s party was designed to be an elite, a minority chosen for intellectual and moral superiority, the most advanced part of the working class and its vanguard”.
(c) In his criticism of Lenin led revolution and his theory of revolution in Russian, G.H Sabine said that “Lenin’s party was designed to be an elite, a minority chosen for intellectual and moral superiority, the most advanced part of the working class and its vanguard”.
Arrange the following books in order in which they appeared:
1.Political Order in Changing Societies
2. The Politics of Modernization
3. How Europe Underdeveloped Africa
4. Capitalism and Underdevelopment in Latin America
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(c) The Nocturnal Council is, as it were, the finishing strokes of Plato’s Laws. Because in Book XII it is going to be introduced as a perfect and permanent safeguard for the regime and its laws of Magnesia. The Nocturnal Council is to consist of the ten oldest Guardians of the Laws; the Supervisor of Education and his predecessors; the Auditors; and younger citizens between the ages of thirty and forty whom each elder member of this body is to associate himself with.
(c) The Nocturnal Council is, as it were, the finishing strokes of Plato’s Laws. Because in Book XII it is going to be introduced as a perfect and permanent safeguard for the regime and its laws of Magnesia. The Nocturnal Council is to consist of the ten oldest Guardians of the Laws; the Supervisor of Education and his predecessors; the Auditors; and younger citizens between the ages of thirty and forty whom each elder member of this body is to associate himself with.
Which one of the following articles of the US Constitution vests the executive powers in the President?
(a) Yes. Its true that for Aristotle the authority of a constitutional ruler over his subjects is quite different from that of a master over his slaves. According to Aristotle the slave is inferior from birth and incapable of ruling himself.
(a) Yes. Its true that for Aristotle the authority of a constitutional ruler over his subjects is quite different from that of a master over his slaves. According to Aristotle the slave is inferior from birth and incapable of ruling himself.
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List- I | List- II |
---|---|
(A) Both Houses have equal powers | i) America |
(B) Upper House is more powerful than Lower House | ii) India |
(C) Lower House is more powerful than Upper House | iii) France |
(D) National Assembly can overthrow the government | iv) Switzerland |
Codes:
(a)
Willmoore Kendall- John Locke and the Doctrine of Majority-rule
J.W. Gough – John Locke’s Political Philosophy
M.W. Cranston – John Locke, A Biography
Richard Cox – Locke on Peace and War
(a)
Willmoore Kendall- John Locke and the Doctrine of Majority-rule
J.W. Gough – John Locke’s Political Philosophy
M.W. Cranston – John Locke, A Biography
Richard Cox – Locke on Peace and War
Consider the following:
1. Pocket Veto
2. President message to federal
legislature
3. Caucus system
4. Pigeon hole-a bill
These are the parts of constitutional practice of
(c) According to Jean Jacques Rousseau, the feelings, affections and bond of family life the joy and beauty of motherhood, man’s love for arts and beauty are of eternal value and man should cultivate all these seriously and sincerely. The cultivation of all these will give man real joy and satisfaction. He believes that there is no place of reason in all these things. He believes that science cannot give man proper satisfaction in life. He said “Science is the fruit of idle curiosity, philosophy is mere intellectual frippery the amenities of polite life are tinsel”.
(c) According to Jean Jacques Rousseau, the feelings, affections and bond of family life the joy and beauty of motherhood, man’s love for arts and beauty are of eternal value and man should cultivate all these seriously and sincerely. The cultivation of all these will give man real joy and satisfaction. He believes that there is no place of reason in all these things. He believes that science cannot give man proper satisfaction in life. He said “Science is the fruit of idle curiosity, philosophy is mere intellectual frippery the amenities of polite life are tinsel”.
For Locke, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) The state must be a constitutional state.
(B) Government must posses discretionary power.
(C) It is a tolerant state.
(D) The right to property is not a natural right.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(d) According to John Locke the Right to Property is a natural right which include within; Right to life, liberty and Estate.
(d) According to John Locke the Right to Property is a natural right which include within; Right to life, liberty and Estate.
For Rousseau, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Two original instincts i.e. selflove and sympathy make up man’s nature.
(B) A thinking man is a depraved animal.
(C) Family is the only natural society.
(D) General will is not a group mind.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(d) General will is what a fully-informed body politic (community of citizens) would unanimously do if, by using good reasoning and judgment unclouded by bias and emotion, it would make general laws and decisions intended to ensure the common good.
(d) General will is what a fully-informed body politic (community of citizens) would unanimously do if, by using good reasoning and judgment unclouded by bias and emotion, it would make general laws and decisions intended to ensure the common good.
For J.S. Mill, which of the following statements is not true?
(A) Pleasures differ in quality as well as in quantity.
(B) Mill makes use of the nonutilitarian arguments.
(C) The felicific calculus is absurd.
(D) Pleasures can be objectively measured.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(d) Mill distinguishes higher and lower pleasures in his essay on “Utilitarianism.” Presumably higher pleasures are generally more intellectual pleasures and lower pleasures are more sensual pleasures. Mill’s utilitarianism is an ethics that says the highest good is what produces the most pleasure. Hence its a subjective concept and not objective.
(d) Mill distinguishes higher and lower pleasures in his essay on “Utilitarianism.” Presumably higher pleasures are generally more intellectual pleasures and lower pleasures are more sensual pleasures. Mill’s utilitarianism is an ethics that says the highest good is what produces the most pleasure. Hence its a subjective concept and not objective.
Arrange the following works of Amartya Sen in chronological order of his publications. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) Idea of Justice
(B) Inequality Re-examined
(C) Development as Freedom
(D) Choice, Welfare and Measurement
Codes:
(a) The correct sequence of Amartya Sen publications;
Choice, Welfare and Measurement – 1982
Inequality Reexamined – 1992
Development as Freedom – 1999
Idea of Justice – 2009
(a) The correct sequence of Amartya Sen publications;
Choice, Welfare and Measurement – 1982
Inequality Reexamined – 1992
Development as Freedom – 1999
Idea of Justice – 2009
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): There was great deal of similarity between the ideas of Mazzini and those of Aurobindo.
Reason (R): Both believed that faith in God was the basis of morality, that politics could not be separated from morality.
Codes:
(a) Yes, it’s true that there was resonance in the revolutionary ideas of Mazzini and Aurobindo. Both of them claimed that faith in God is the basis of morality. Hence religious moral principles should not be separated from Politics.
(a) Yes, it’s true that there was resonance in the revolutionary ideas of Mazzini and Aurobindo. Both of them claimed that faith in God is the basis of morality. Hence religious moral principles should not be separated from Politics.
Identify the correct sequence in which general systems theory has been adopted in social sciences?
(i) Psychology
(ii) Sociology
(iii) Anthropology
(iv) Political Science
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(b) General System theory was evolved by Ludwig von Bertalanffy in 1968. This model subsequently adopted by various disciplines of social science in following sequence; Anthropology, Sociology, Psychology and Political Science.
(b) General System theory was evolved by Ludwig von Bertalanffy in 1968. This model subsequently adopted by various disciplines of social science in following sequence; Anthropology, Sociology, Psychology and Political Science.
The term ‘legitimation crisis’, in terms of erosion of confidence in public institutions resulting in coercive apparatus of states, was developed by:
(d) Habermas’s concept of “legitimation crisis” refers to periods when, “the ‘organizational principle’ of a society does not permit the resolution of problems that are critical for its continued existence.”
(d) Habermas’s concept of “legitimation crisis” refers to periods when, “the ‘organizational principle’ of a society does not permit the resolution of problems that are critical for its continued existence.”
Which of the following is not true of a Constitution?
(c) Any constitution of a country majorly deals with the national Security. The issues of Transnational security is dealt by Multilateral cooperation.
(c) Any constitution of a country majorly deals with the national Security. The issues of Transnational security is dealt by Multilateral cooperation.
Who among the following are European thinkers associated with the theory of political elites?
(A) Pareto (B) Mosca
(C) Schumpeter (D) Lasswell
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Vilfredo Federico Damaso was an Italian engineer, sociologist, economist, political scientist, and philosopher. Gaetano Mosca was an Italian political scientist, journalist and public servant. He is credited with developing the elite theory and the doctrine of the political class and is one of the three members constituting the Italian school of elitism together with Vilfredo Pareto and Robert Michels.
(a) Vilfredo Federico Damaso was an Italian engineer, sociologist, economist, political scientist, and philosopher. Gaetano Mosca was an Italian political scientist, journalist and public servant. He is credited with developing the elite theory and the doctrine of the political class and is one of the three members constituting the Italian school of elitism together with Vilfredo Pareto and Robert Michels.
Who among the following do not make any distinction between interest groups and pressure groups?
(A) Jean Blondel
(B) Myron Weiner
(C) Robert C. Bone
(D) James Coleman
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(d) James Coleman is credited with the foundation of Social Theory. His research topic did not involve classification interest or pressure group.
(d) James Coleman is credited with the foundation of Social Theory. His research topic did not involve classification interest or pressure group.
Which of the following are the characteristics of development administration?
1. Change-orientation
2. Client orientation
3. Citizen-participative orientation
4. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(d) Development administration is a dynamic concept which brings about socio-economic and politico-economic changes in society. Aiming towards development, it strives for change, growth, progress and overall development in every sphere of a country. It was first introduced by Edward W. Weidner. The following are the characteristics of development administration:
• Change-oriented
• Result-oriented
• Client-oriented
• Citizen participation oriented
• Commitment to fulfill public demands
• Concerned with innovation
• Administration of industrial societies
• Effectiveness of coordination
(d) Development administration is a dynamic concept which brings about socio-economic and politico-economic changes in society. Aiming towards development, it strives for change, growth, progress and overall development in every sphere of a country. It was first introduced by Edward W. Weidner. The following are the characteristics of development administration:
• Change-oriented
• Result-oriented
• Client-oriented
• Citizen participation oriented
• Commitment to fulfill public demands
• Concerned with innovation
• Administration of industrial societies
• Effectiveness of coordination
Domicile qualification for public services was first prescribed by
(a) A domicile certificate not only prove the residence status of a person but also makes him eligible to avail various benefits based on his or her domicile such as education, job and other benefits such as resident quotas in the government service and educational institutions. USA was the first country to introduce domicile condition for public administration servant job.
(a) A domicile certificate not only prove the residence status of a person but also makes him eligible to avail various benefits based on his or her domicile such as education, job and other benefits such as resident quotas in the government service and educational institutions. USA was the first country to introduce domicile condition for public administration servant job.
Which one of the following is the Cadre-controlling authority for the Indian Police Service?
(a) The position minister of Personnel, public grievance and pensions considered to be a powerful one as of it is the cadre controlling authority of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and is the administering agency of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB).
(a) The position minister of Personnel, public grievance and pensions considered to be a powerful one as of it is the cadre controlling authority of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and is the administering agency of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB).
The process of transferring funds from one budget head to another of the same department where there is a need for more expenditure is called
(c) Re-appropriation, which implies the transfer of funds from one primary unit of appropriation to another such unit within a grant, can be sanctioned under formal orders of a competent authority, only when it is known or anticipated that the appropriation for the unit from which funds are to be diverted.
(c) Re-appropriation, which implies the transfer of funds from one primary unit of appropriation to another such unit within a grant, can be sanctioned under formal orders of a competent authority, only when it is known or anticipated that the appropriation for the unit from which funds are to be diverted.
Promotion generally means
1. Change in position
2. Change in duties
3. Change in title
4. Change in pay
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(d) The advancement of an employee within a company position or job tasks. A job promotion may be the result of an employee’s proactive pursuit of a higher ranking or as a reward by employers for good performance. Typically is also associated with a higher rate of pay or financial bonus.
(d) The advancement of an employee within a company position or job tasks. A job promotion may be the result of an employee’s proactive pursuit of a higher ranking or as a reward by employers for good performance. Typically is also associated with a higher rate of pay or financial bonus.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Regimes represent an important feature of globalization.
Reason (R): The onset of détente, the loss of hegemonic status by the USA and the growing awareness of environmental problems sensitized social scientists.
Codes:
(b) The onset of détente, the loss of hegemonic status by the USA and the growing awareness of environmental problems sensitized social scientists. The regimes are an important feature of globalization. The multi polar world is the present reality in the absence of an absolute hegemone.
(b) The onset of détente, the loss of hegemonic status by the USA and the growing awareness of environmental problems sensitized social scientists. The regimes are an important feature of globalization. The multi polar world is the present reality in the absence of an absolute hegemone.
Who said, “Power in International Politics is like the weather. Everyone talks about it, but few understand it”?
(c) In a journal article “The Changing Nature of World Power” Published in Political Science Quarterly Joseph S. Nye wrote that “Power in International Politics is like the weather. Everyone talks about it, but few understand it.”
(c) In a journal article “The Changing Nature of World Power” Published in Political Science Quarterly Joseph S. Nye wrote that “Power in International Politics is like the weather. Everyone talks about it, but few understand it.”
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List- I (Reasons of failure) | List- II (States) |
---|---|
(A) Tribal conflict | i) Rwanda |
(B) Endless for violence nonpolitical purposes | ii) Somalia |
(C) Ethnic genocide | iii) Congo |
(D) Transnational war | iv) Liberia |
Codes:
(a)
(Reasons of failure) (States)
Tribal conflict – Somalia
Endless violence for
nonpolitical purposes – Liberia
Ethnic genocide – Rawada
Transnational war – Congo
(a)
(Reasons of failure) (States)
Tribal conflict – Somalia
Endless violence for
nonpolitical purposes – Liberia
Ethnic genocide – Rawada
Transnational war – Congo
Which countries were identified as the “Axis of Evil” by President Bush in his State of Union Speech in 2002?
(d) The phrase axis of evil was first used by U.S. President George W. Bush in his State of the Union address on January 29, 2002, and often repeated throughout his presidency, to describe foreign governments that, during his administration, sponsored terrorism and sought weapons of mass destruction. Axis of evil, expression used to describe the bellicose tendencies of Iran, North Korea, and Iraq in the early 21st century.
(d) The phrase axis of evil was first used by U.S. President George W. Bush in his State of the Union address on January 29, 2002, and often repeated throughout his presidency, to describe foreign governments that, during his administration, sponsored terrorism and sought weapons of mass destruction. Axis of evil, expression used to describe the bellicose tendencies of Iran, North Korea, and Iraq in the early 21st century.
When was the UN Peace building Commission established?
(c) The Peace Building Commission (PBC) was jointly established by the General Assembly and the Security Council in 2005 as a new intergovernmental advisory body of the United Nations that supported peace efforts in countries emerging from conflict. Its aim is to propose integrated strategies for postconflict peace building and recovery, bring together all of the relevant actors and marshal resources.
(c) The Peace Building Commission (PBC) was jointly established by the General Assembly and the Security Council in 2005 as a new intergovernmental advisory body of the United Nations that supported peace efforts in countries emerging from conflict. Its aim is to propose integrated strategies for postconflict peace building and recovery, bring together all of the relevant actors and marshal resources.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Assertion (A): Herbert Simon has ridiculed the classical theory of organisation as a machine model theory.
Reason (R): Classicists are too much preoccupied with the formal structural part of organisation and that too at the cost of human factors.
Codes:
(a)
(a)
Which of the following statements is not correct about the Right to Information Act?
(c) The Official Secrets Act was first enacted in 1923 and was retained after Independence. The law, applicable to government servants and citizens, provides the framework for dealing with espionage, sedition, and other potential threats to the integrity of the nation. Right to Information does not eliminate the office secrets act 1923.
(c) The Official Secrets Act was first enacted in 1923 and was retained after Independence. The law, applicable to government servants and citizens, provides the framework for dealing with espionage, sedition, and other potential threats to the integrity of the nation. Right to Information does not eliminate the office secrets act 1923.
Which of the following is not an integral part of liberal constitutionalism?
(c) Liberal Constitutionalism did not support the principles of Majoritarianism. Majoritarianism according to the are against the idea of Democracy. Liberal constitutionalism mainly propagates Toleration, Consent, Individualism, Minority rights etc.
(c) Liberal Constitutionalism did not support the principles of Majoritarianism. Majoritarianism according to the are against the idea of Democracy. Liberal constitutionalism mainly propagates Toleration, Consent, Individualism, Minority rights etc.
The Presidential system operates most successfully in the U.S. because of
(d) It is believed by various scholars of Comparative Politics that the American Presidential system operates most successfully in comparison to other Presidential government all over the world. The reason as claimed is the Minor Contradictions in American society.
(d) It is believed by various scholars of Comparative Politics that the American Presidential system operates most successfully in comparison to other Presidential government all over the world. The reason as claimed is the Minor Contradictions in American society.
The House of Lords in Great Britain is mainly retained because
(d) The House of Lords is the second chamber of the UK Parliament. It is independent from, and complements the work of the elected House of Commons. The Lords shares the task of making and shaping laws and checking and challenging the work of the government.
(d) The House of Lords is the second chamber of the UK Parliament. It is independent from, and complements the work of the elected House of Commons. The Lords shares the task of making and shaping laws and checking and challenging the work of the government.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Huntington is correct in asserting that the combination of the role of the state and government of the U.S. President is a medieval practice.
Reason (R): It is because in other liberal democracies, the two roles are not combined.
Codes:
(a) Both the statement are correct and the reason statement is a correct explanation behind the assertion statement. The protection of human rights has significantly increased the requirement on the side of judiciary to increase its power and domain over the last one hundred years in liberal democracies.
(a) Both the statement are correct and the reason statement is a correct explanation behind the assertion statement. The protection of human rights has significantly increased the requirement on the side of judiciary to increase its power and domain over the last one hundred years in liberal democracies.
The growth of judicial power over the last one hundred years in liberal democracies have taken place because
(d) Max Weber distinguishes three types of authority—charismatic, traditional and legal-rational—each of which corresponds to a brand of leadership that is operative in contemporary society. Beliefs and symbols are the distinctive features of weber’s notion of authority.
(d) Max Weber distinguishes three types of authority—charismatic, traditional and legal-rational—each of which corresponds to a brand of leadership that is operative in contemporary society. Beliefs and symbols are the distinctive features of weber’s notion of authority.
Beliefs and symbols are the distinctive features of the notion of authority in
(a) The interim government of 1946 was initially headed by the viceroy executive council. Jawaharlal Nehru became the Vice-President of that council and also the head of the interim government.
(a) The interim government of 1946 was initially headed by the viceroy executive council. Jawaharlal Nehru became the Vice-President of that council and also the head of the interim government.
Regarding the Interim Government of 1946, which of the following is not correct?
(b) Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or to any other tribune. It can’t be issued by one bench of the High Court to another bench of the High Court.
(b) Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or to any other tribune. It can’t be issued by one bench of the High Court to another bench of the High Court.
Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding Certiorari?
(c) Continuing mandamus is a writ issued by a court in an environmental case directing any agency or instrumentality of the government or officer thereof to perform an act or series of acts decreed by final judgment which shall remain effective until judgment is fully satisfied. This is issued by the supreme court in Vineet Narain Vs. Union of India Case.
(c) Continuing mandamus is a writ issued by a court in an environmental case directing any agency or instrumentality of the government or officer thereof to perform an act or series of acts decreed by final judgment which shall remain effective until judgment is fully satisfied. This is issued by the supreme court in Vineet Narain Vs. Union of India Case.
Who among the following former Presidents of India kept the ‘Indian Post Office Amendment Bill’ pending?
(c) Zail Singh, President of India from 1982 until 1987, exercised a pocket veto to prevent the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill from becoming law.
(c) Zail Singh, President of India from 1982 until 1987, exercised a pocket veto to prevent the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill from becoming law.
Who said ‘All Communalism is harmful’? The logic of minority Communalism is separatism, and majority communalism culminates in Fascism?
(c) Bipin Chandra made this observation to the nature of communalism. He tried to establish that communalism leads to multiple discrepancy in a social order.
(c) Bipin Chandra made this observation to the nature of communalism. He tried to establish that communalism leads to multiple discrepancy in a social order.
Who emphasized the emergence of “a market polity” in India?
(c) In the words of Morris Jones, outcome of elections indicated the emergence of ‘market polity.’ By this, it meant, a system in which large number of decisions are taken by a substantial number of participants, who stand in both positions, being dependent on with each other as well as in conflicts. The decisions in this alliance are reached by a process of bargaining, where no one is strong enough to impose his decisions.
(c) In the words of Morris Jones, outcome of elections indicated the emergence of ‘market polity.’ By this, it meant, a system in which large number of decisions are taken by a substantial number of participants, who stand in both positions, being dependent on with each other as well as in conflicts. The decisions in this alliance are reached by a process of bargaining, where no one is strong enough to impose his decisions.
The most logical criterion to distinguish a line function from staff is
(b) Line and staff functions indicate the pattern of distribution of authority in an organization. Simply stated, authority is the right to act. According to Koontz and others (1984), Authority in an organization is the power in a position to exercise discretion in making decisions affecting others.
(b) Line and staff functions indicate the pattern of distribution of authority in an organization. Simply stated, authority is the right to act. According to Koontz and others (1984), Authority in an organization is the power in a position to exercise discretion in making decisions affecting others.
Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendations of
(d) The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
(d) The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February,1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
The Lokpal and Lokayukta Bill 1968 passed by the Lok Sabha lapsed because
(d) The bill was first brought before the fourth Lok Sabha in 1968 and passed in 1969. However, the House was dissolved, resulting in the first death of the bill.
(d) The bill was first brought before the fourth Lok Sabha in 1968 and passed in 1969. However, the House was dissolved, resulting in the first death of the bill.
Which one of the following is not correct about Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
(d) India became an ASEAN Sectoral Dialogue Partner in 1992, a full ASEAN Dialogue Partner in 1995, and participated in the East Asia Summits (EAS) from 2005.
(d) India became an ASEAN Sectoral Dialogue Partner in 1992, a full ASEAN Dialogue Partner in 1995, and participated in the East Asia Summits (EAS) from 2005.
Who among the following used the phrase – The United Nations is ‘sharing in the name of solidarity’ for underlining the necessity of the U.N.?
(b) Dag Hammarskjold defined Unite Nation as the “Sharing in the name of solidarity’. By this statement he tried to elaborate the utility of United Nation.
(b) Dag Hammarskjold defined Unite Nation as the “Sharing in the name of solidarity’. By this statement he tried to elaborate the utility of United Nation.
Which one of the following was not included in the minimum criteria for ensuring good national governance by Nayef Al-Rodhan in his book ‘Sustainable History and Dignity of Man’?
(c) Sustainable History and the Dignity of Man is a new philosophy of history. This volume outlines how sustainable history is propelled by good governance, which balances the tension between the attributes. In this book Nayef Al-Rodhan mentioned some minimum criteria for ensuring good national governance. The criteria are Equity and Inclusiveness, Rule of Law and Transparency. A system of check and balance is not considered by him as minimum criteria.
(c) Sustainable History and the Dignity of Man is a new philosophy of history. This volume outlines how sustainable history is propelled by good governance, which balances the tension between the attributes. In this book Nayef Al-Rodhan mentioned some minimum criteria for ensuring good national governance. The criteria are Equity and Inclusiveness, Rule of Law and Transparency. A system of check and balance is not considered by him as minimum criteria.
Regarding the liability of holders of public office, when an official fails to perform a legal duty, it is known as
(b) Nonfeasance is a legal concept that refers to the willful failure to execute or perform an act or duty required by one’s position, office, or law, whereby that neglect results in harm or damage to a person or property. The perpetrator can be found liable and subject to prosecution.
(b) Nonfeasance is a legal concept that refers to the willful failure to execute or perform an act or duty required by one’s position, office, or law, whereby that neglect results in harm or damage to a person or property. The perpetrator can be found liable and subject to prosecution.
Which of the following are the characteristics of development administration?
1. Change-orientation
2. Client orientation
3. Citizen-participative orientation
4. Ecological perspective
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(d) Development administration is a dynamic concept which brings about socio-economic and politico-economic changes in society. Aiming towards development, it strives for change, growth, progress and overall development in every sphere of a country. It was first introduced by Edward W. Weidner. The following are the characteristics of development administration:
Change-oriented
• Result-oriented
• Client-oriented
• Citizen participation oriented
• Commitment to fulfill public demands
• Concerned with innovation
• Administration of industrial societies
• Effectiveness of coordination
(d) Development administration is a dynamic concept which brings about socio-economic and politico-economic changes in society. Aiming towards development, it strives for change, growth, progress and overall development in every sphere of a country. It was first introduced by Edward W. Weidner. The following are the characteristics of development administration:
Change-oriented
• Result-oriented
• Client-oriented
• Citizen participation oriented
• Commitment to fulfill public demands
• Concerned with innovation
• Administration of industrial societies
• Effectiveness of coordination
Domicile qualification for public services was first prescribed by
(a) A domicile certificate not only prove the residence status of a person but also makes him eligible to avail various benefits based on his or her domicile such as education, job and other benefits such as resident quotas in the government service and educational institutions. USA was the first country to introduce domicile condition for public administration servant job.
(a) A domicile certificate not only prove the residence status of a person but also makes him eligible to avail various benefits based on his or her domicile such as education, job and other benefits such as resident quotas in the government service and educational institutions. USA was the first country to introduce domicile condition for public administration servant job.
Which one of the following is the Cadre-controlling authority for the Indian Police Service?
(a) The position minister of Personnel, public grievance and pensions considered to be a powerful one as of it is the cadre controlling authority of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and is the administering agency of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB).
(a) The position minister of Personnel, public grievance and pensions considered to be a powerful one as of it is the cadre controlling authority of the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), and is the administering agency of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB).
The process of transferring funds from one budget head to another of the same department where there is a need for more expenditure is called
(c) Reappropriation, which implies the transfer of funds from one primary unit of appropriation to another such unit within a grant, can be sanctioned under formal orders of a competent authority, only when it is known or anticipated that the appropriation for the unit from which funds are to be diverted.
(c) Reappropriation, which implies the transfer of funds from one primary unit of appropriation to another such unit within a grant, can be sanctioned under formal orders of a competent authority, only when it is known or anticipated that the appropriation for the unit from which funds are to be diverted.
Promotion generally means
1. Change in position
2. Change in duties
3. Change in title
4. Change in pay
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(d) The advancement of an employee within a company position or job tasks. A job promotion may be the result of an employee’s proactive pursuit of a higher ranking or as a reward by employers for good performance. Typically is also associated with a higher rate of pay or financial bonus.
(d) The advancement of an employee within a company position or job tasks. A job promotion may be the result of an employee’s proactive pursuit of a higher ranking or as a reward by employers for good performance. Typically is also associated with a higher rate of pay or financial bonus.
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Panchayati Raj is mentioned in the Constitution as a Directive Principle.
2. Sadiq Ali Committee was appointed to report on the working of the Panchayat system in India.
3. G.V.K. Rao Committee was appointed by the Planning Commission.
4. Local Government figures in State List.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Sadiq Ali Committee was appointed to report on the working of the Panchayat system in Rajasthan by government of Rajasthan and not in for all over India. G.V.K. Rao Committee was appointed by the Planning Commission to study the panchayati raj structure in India.
(a) Sadiq Ali Committee was appointed to report on the working of the Panchayat system in Rajasthan by government of Rajasthan and not in for all over India. G.V.K. Rao Committee was appointed by the Planning Commission to study the panchayati raj structure in India.
Who among the following has termed bureaucracy as “an organization that cannot correct its behaviour by learning from its errors”?
(b)
(b)
Who is the Chairperson of the National Council of Joint Consultative Machinery (JCM)?
(a) The scheme of Joint Consultative Machinery is a platform for constructive dialogue between the representatives of the staff side and the official side for peaceful resolution of all disputes between the Government as employer and the employees. The scheme was introduced in 1966 with the objectives of promoting harmonious relations and securing the greatest measure of cooperation between the Central Government as the employer and the employees in matters of common concern and with the object of further increasing the efficiency of the public service combined with the well being of those employed. The Cabinet Secretary is the Chairman of the Council. He is the leader of the official side and is connecting link between the government and the employees.
(a) The scheme of Joint Consultative Machinery is a platform for constructive dialogue between the representatives of the staff side and the official side for peaceful resolution of all disputes between the Government as employer and the employees. The scheme was introduced in 1966 with the objectives of promoting harmonious relations and securing the greatest measure of cooperation between the Central Government as the employer and the employees in matters of common concern and with the object of further increasing the efficiency of the public service combined with the well being of those employed. The Cabinet Secretary is the Chairman of the Council. He is the leader of the official side and is connecting link between the government and the employees.
Of all the controls over Public Administration the one which is more continuous and self-corrective is
(b) Executive Control Over Administration is a type of control works automatically and spontaneously with the movement of Government machinery. It is a sort of self-regulating device which controls the movement of machinery of which it is a part. Administrative structure is hierarchical in nature.
(b) Executive Control Over Administration is a type of control works automatically and spontaneously with the movement of Government machinery. It is a sort of self-regulating device which controls the movement of machinery of which it is a part. Administrative structure is hierarchical in nature.
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A few years back, the Government of India started what is known as “file jumping experiment”.
Reason (R): Hierarchical structure causes inordinate delay in the disposal of work.
Codes:
(a) Due to the delay caused by hierarchical structure in the disposal of work. The Government of India started what is known as “file jumping experiment”. Both the statement are correct and second one is an appropriate explanation behind the first statement.
(a) Due to the delay caused by hierarchical structure in the disposal of work. The Government of India started what is known as “file jumping experiment”. Both the statement are correct and second one is an appropriate explanation behind the first statement.
Gulf Cooperation Council was founded in year
(c) Established in 1981, the GCC promotes economic, security, cultural and social cooperation between the six states and holds a summit every year to discuss cooperation and regional affairs.
(c) Established in 1981, the GCC promotes economic, security, cultural and social cooperation between the six states and holds a summit every year to discuss cooperation and regional affairs.
What is the full form of TRIMS?
(b) The Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures are rules that are applicable to the domestic regulations a country applies to foreign investors, often as part of an industrial policy. It is related to WTO.
(b) The Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures are rules that are applicable to the domestic regulations a country applies to foreign investors, often as part of an industrial policy. It is related to WTO.
Agreement on Agricultural is related to which international Organisation?
(d) The WTO Agreement on Agriculture was one of the many agreements which were negotiated during the Uruguay Round. The implementation of the Agreement on Agriculture started with effect from 1.1.1995. As per the provisions of the Agreement, the developed countries would complete their reduction commitments within 6 years, i.e., by the year 2000, whereas the commitments of the developing countries would be completed within 10 years, i.e., by the year 2004. The least developed countries are not required to make any reductions.
(d) The WTO Agreement on Agriculture was one of the many agreements which were negotiated during the Uruguay Round. The implementation of the Agreement on Agriculture started with effect from 1.1.1995. As per the provisions of the Agreement, the developed countries would complete their reduction commitments within 6 years, i.e., by the year 2000, whereas the commitments of the developing countries would be completed within 10 years, i.e., by the year 2004. The least developed countries are not required to make any reductions.
Who described political theory as ‘the systematic thinking about the purpose of the government’?
(c) John Plamenatz defined Political theory as ‘systematic thinking about the purposes of government’. This is not conceived as a descriptive exercise, qua political science. It seeks to evaluate rather than explain. However, this conception of theory embodies a number of sub-approaches. The main normative foundational contenders are utilitarianism, consequentialism, Aristotelianism and deontology – with many subtle overlappings and variations.
(c) John Plamenatz defined Political theory as ‘systematic thinking about the purposes of government’. This is not conceived as a descriptive exercise, qua political science. It seeks to evaluate rather than explain. However, this conception of theory embodies a number of sub-approaches. The main normative foundational contenders are utilitarianism, consequentialism, Aristotelianism and deontology – with many subtle overlappings and variations.
Who is the author of the book ‘The Philosophy of J.S. Mill’?
(c) The Philosophy of J.S. Mill Book was written by Richard Paul Anschutz in 1953. This book attempts to unravel the tangled skein of Mill’s speculative thinking by stressing the ideal of scientific knowledge which he derived from the study of Newton’s physics.
(c) The Philosophy of J.S. Mill Book was written by Richard Paul Anschutz in 1953. This book attempts to unravel the tangled skein of Mill’s speculative thinking by stressing the ideal of scientific knowledge which he derived from the study of Newton’s physics.
Who is the author of ‘Savitri’?
(c) Savitri was written by Aurobindo Gosh in 1940. In Savitri, a legend from the Mahabharata becomes the symbol of the human soul’s spiritual destiny. In poetic language, Sri Aurobindo describes his vision of existence and explores the reason for ignorance, darkness, suffering and pain, the purpose of life on earth and the prospect of a glorious future for humanity. The writing of the epic extended over much of the later part of his life.
(c) Savitri was written by Aurobindo Gosh in 1940. In Savitri, a legend from the Mahabharata becomes the symbol of the human soul’s spiritual destiny. In poetic language, Sri Aurobindo describes his vision of existence and explores the reason for ignorance, darkness, suffering and pain, the purpose of life on earth and the prospect of a glorious future for humanity. The writing of the epic extended over much of the later part of his life.
“Once God is let in, there is an end to the sovereignty of man.” Who said this?
(c) M.N Roy said that “Once god is let it, there is an end to the sovereignty of man”. By this he mean to state that mixing of religion in leads to the undermining of human rights.
(c) M.N Roy said that “Once god is let it, there is an end to the sovereignty of man”. By this he mean to state that mixing of religion in leads to the undermining of human rights.
Who said “Man is what he eats”?
(d) The statement ‘man is what he eats’ was coined by Ludwig Feuerbach, thus emphasizing the worldliness of human nature as a challenge to the general concentration on the life after and the religious belief of his time.
(d) The statement ‘man is what he eats’ was coined by Ludwig Feuerbach, thus emphasizing the worldliness of human nature as a challenge to the general concentration on the life after and the religious belief of his time.
Who is the propounder of labour theory of value?
(b) Locke’s concept of labor refers to production, which is both an intellectual and physical activity. His concept of value refers to what serves the flourishing life of a rational being, which is a conception of the good that is more robust than merely physical status or economic wealth.
(b) Locke’s concept of labor refers to production, which is both an intellectual and physical activity. His concept of value refers to what serves the flourishing life of a rational being, which is a conception of the good that is more robust than merely physical status or economic wealth.
Which one of the following is correct regarding the writings of Machiavelli?
(a) ‘Discourses on Livy’, by Niccolo Machiavelli, is a collection of Machiavelli’s thoughts on politics, war, and affairs of state. His writings are plain and straightforward commentaries using the ancient Roman Empire as a general backdrop on which to paint his own philosophies.Discourses
(a) ‘Discourses on Livy’, by Niccolo Machiavelli, is a collection of Machiavelli’s thoughts on politics, war, and affairs of state. His writings are plain and straightforward commentaries using the ancient Roman Empire as a general backdrop on which to paint his own philosophies.Discourses
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