Correct Answer: 3) A, D, B, C
Explanation:
Gorwala Committee (1951) – The earliest committee, focused on reforming public administration post-independence.
Shanthanam Committee (1962–63) – Appointed to recommend measures against corruption.
First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) – Formed to review and reform public administration comprehensively.
Vohra Committee (1993) – Investigated the criminal-politician-bureaucrat nexus, highlighting the criminalization of politics.
Thus, the chronological order is:
A (1951), D (1962-63), B (1966), C (1993)
→ Option 3 is correct.

Answer: 3) Article 328
Explanation:
The power of the state legislature to make provisions with respect to elections to such legislature is given under Article 328 of the Indian Constitution.
This article allows the legislature of a state to make provisions with respect to all matters relating to, or in connection with, the elections to the House or either House of the Legislature of the State, including the preparation of electoral rolls and all other matters necessary for securing the due constitution of such House or Houses.

Correct Answer: 2) Public Accounts Committee is an annually elected body in accordance with the principle of the proportional representation followed by single transferable vote system.
Explanation:
Composition: PAC has 22 members:
15 from Lok Sabha
7 from Rajya Sabha
Election Method: Members are elected annually using the proportional representation system through the single transferable vote.
Re-election: There is no restriction on re-election. Members can be re-nominated or re-elected.

Incorrect Options:
Option 1 is incorrect: PAC is not limited to Lok Sabha members.
Option 3 is incorrect: PAC has 22, not 30 members.
Option 4 is incorrect: Re-election is allowed.

Conclusion:
The PAC is a joint parliamentary committee with annual elections, and its members are elected via proportional representation with a single transferable vote, making Option 2 the correct answer.

Ans: 1) Dhar Commission
Explanation:
The Linguistic Provinces Commission that was formed to advise the Constituent Assembly was popularly known as the Dhar Commission. The commission was headed by S.K. Dhar and was set up in 1948 to investigate the feasibility of re-organizing states based on language. So, the correct answer is 1) Dhar Commission.

Answer: 3) Markets and fairs
Explanation:
The Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution includes subjects that give powers to both the Centre and state governments. Subjects like bankruptcy and insolvency, prevention of cruelty to animals, and economic and social planning are part of the Concurrent List. However, “Markets and fairs” is not a part of the Concurrent List. “Markets and fairs” come under the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution
So, the correct answer is 3) Markets and fairs.

Answer: 1) A only
Explanation: The correct answer is 1. A only. Here’s why:
A) He is a citizen of India: This is correct. The Governor must be a citizen of India.
B) He has completed the age of 25 years: This is incorrect. The Governor must have completed the age of 35 years.
C) He is appointed by the Prime Minister: This is incorrect. The Governor is appointed by the President of India.
D) He holds the office of Governor for a term of 6 years: This is incorrect. The Governor holds the office for a term of 5 years.
E) He resigns from his office, by writing under his hand addressed to the Prime Minister: This is incorrect. The Governor resigns by writing under his hand addressed to the President.

Answer: 4) A, B, C and E only
Explanation:
A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan: He was first elected as Vice-President and later became the country’s President.
B) V. V. Giri: He was first elected as Vice-President and later became the country’s President.
C) Dr Shankar Dayal Sharma: He was first elected as Vice-President and later became the country’s President.
D) B. D. Jatti: He did not become the President of India.
E) R Venkataraman: He was first elected as Vice-President and later became the country’s President.

Answer: 2) Twenty fourth amandment
Explantion:
The Twenty-fourth Amendment overrode the Golaknath case decided in 1967. The Golaknath case was a landmark judgement where the Supreme Court of India ruled that Parliament could not curtail any of the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution. However, the 24th Amendment Act, passed in 1971, overruled this decision.

Answer: 3) To examine the report of the CAG with a view to find out that the money voted by the Parliament has been utilized by the authority concerned.
Explanation:
The correct answer is 3. To examine the report of the CAG with a view to find out that the money voted by the Parliament has been utilized by the authority concerned.
This is not a function of the Estimates Committee. The functions of the Estimates Committee are to suggest alternative policies to bring about efficiency and economy in administration, to examine whether the money is well laid out within the policy implied in the estimates, and to suggest the form in which estimates can be presented to Parliament.
The examination of the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is not within its purview

ANS: 3) A, B,& D only
EXPLANATION:
The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992, indeed introduced significant provisions regarding Panchayats in India.
A Correct. The Act empowers Gram Sabhas to exercise certain powers and functions at the village level, subject to state legislature laws.
B Correct. The Act mandates the formation of a Finance Commission by the Governor every five years to assess the financial status of the Panchayats and make recommendations.
C Incorrect. The Act actually aims to empower Panchayats further, enhancing their role as institutions of self-government. It doesn’t restrict the state legislature from endowing them with more powers.
D Correct. The Act specifies that elections to constitute Panchayats must be completed within six months from the date of dissolution, ensuring timely reconstitution.
So, options A, B, and D are correct, making option 3 the right answer.

Ans: 1) A, B, C and D only
Explanation: Article 161 mentions the Pardoning Power of the Governor – It states that the Governor of a State shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the State extends.

Ans: 2) C. A. D. B
Explanation: Correct Chronological Sequence of the Landmark Judgements of India:
1) Golaknath and others vs. State of Punjab case – 1967
2) Kesavananda Bharti vs. State of Kerala case – 1973
3) Maneka Gandhi case vs. Union of India case – 1978
4) Minerva Mills Ltd. and others vs. Union of India – 1980

Correct Answer: None of the options are correct — all of the above are actually concerned with minority rights.
The question is based on a misleading assumption. Here’s why:

Final Conclusion:
All four options (A, B, C, D) address minority rights in some form — either political, social, or legal.
Thus, none of the options (1 to 4) are correct. The correct interpretation is:
All of the above resolutions are concerned with the development and protection of minority rights in India.

Ans: 2) A, B, C, D
Explanation: Correct Chronological Sequence of Articles of DPSP are as follows:
1) To organize village Panchayat – Article 40
2) To secure the right to work – Article 41
3) To make provision for just and humane condition – Article 42
4) To secure a living wage, decent standard of life – Article 43

Ans: 3) 50
Explanation: A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the President.
The President can issue the removal order only after an address by Parliament.
The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment –
A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ Chairman.

Correct Answer: 2) A, B, C and E only
Explanation:
Under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, several rights have been interpreted by the Supreme Court as part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty. These include:
A) Right against public hanging – ✔ Yes, recognized by the Supreme Court as part of human dignity.
B) Right to sustainable development – ✔ Yes, included under the right to a healthy and clean environment.
C) Right to livelihood – ✔ Yes, part of the right to live with dignity.
D) Right to free education up to 16 years of age – ✘ No, education is a right under Article 21A only up to 14 years of age.
E) Right to reputation – ✔ Yes, considered part of the right to dignity under Article 21.
So, Option 2 (A, B, C and E only) is the most appropriate answer.

Correct Answer: 2) Telangana – Separate development board for Rayalaseema Region
Explanation:
Rayalaseema is a region in Andhra Pradesh, not Telangana.
No such provision exists for Telangana under Articles 371 to 371-J.
Other options correctly mention special powers under the Constitution.
Hence, Option 2 is incorrect.

Ans: 2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Explanation: These are Quotes by Scholars to describe the federal character of the Indian Constitution:
Morris Jones – Bargaining Federalism
Paul Appleby – Extremely Federal
Ivor Jennings – Federation with strong centralizing tendency
Granville Austin – Cooperative Federalism

Correct Answer: 1) Indian Council Act, 1892
Explanation:
The Indian Council Act of 1892 introduced Limited Franchise for the first time in British India.
It allowed indirect elections to legislative councils.
Indians could now discuss budgets and ask questions (limited), marking the beginning of a representative system.
Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Correct Answer: 2) 01-01-2015
Explanation:
NITI Aayog was established on 1st January 2015.
It replaced the Planning Commission.
Created by executive resolution (not by Constitution or law).
It is a non-constitutional and non-statutory body.
Acts as the policy think tank of the Government of India. ✔

Ans: 2) B, A, D, C
Explanation: Major Committees/Commissions on Local Governments in India in Chronological Order:
Ashok Mehta Committee – 1977
G.V.K Rao Committee – 1985
L.M. Singhvi Committee – 1986
P.K. Thungon Committee – 1988

Correct Answer: 1) Right to suicide
Explanation:
Article 21 ensures the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
It includes many rights like:
Right to privacy,
Right to good health,
Right against public hanging, etc.
Right to suicide is not included, as the Right to Life does not mean the right to die.
Hence, suicide is not a fundamental right under Article 21.

Ans: 2) Lord Mayo’s Resolution, 1870
Explanation: In 1870, Lord Mayo, the Viceroy of India, introduced a resolution aiming to decentralize authority and establish local self-government, involving more representation from Indians.
The resolution sought to develop self-governance, enhance municipal institutions, and involve Indians and Europeans more in administration.
Until then, local governance initiatives were driven by revenue or basic urban needs, with British-dominated, nominated bodies.
Lord Mayo’s 1870 Resolution – proposed the introduction of an Elected President in the Municipalities.

Correct Answer: 2) A, C and D only
Explanation:
A) Starred Question – Needs oral answer, and supplementary questions can follow. ✔
B) Short Notice Question – Asked with less than 10 days’ notice, not 2 days. ✘
C) Adjournment Motion – Needs support of 50 members to be admitted. ✔
D) Zero Hour – Starts immediately after Question Hour and continues till the regular business begins. ✔
So, only A, C, and D are correct.

Ans: 4) A, B, C only
Explanation: All the three Statements are True with regards to Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India :-
A) Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, International Commercial Arbitration can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.
B) The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction under Article 143.
C) Article 32 of the Constitution gives an extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme Court with regard to enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Ans: 4) A, B and C only
Explanation: All the three Statements are True with regards to Central Information Commission (CIC) :-
A) CIC was constituted through an official gazette notification under the provisions of the RTI Act 2005.
B) When CIC was constituted initially, it has five commissioners including Chief Information Commissioners.
C) The Chief Information Commissioner holds office for a period of three years from the date on which he enters upon office.

Correct Answer: 3) An Individual Ministry or Department has no power to reject the advice of the UPSC.
Explanation:
UPSC’s advice is not binding; ministries can reject it.
All other statements are correct.

Ans: 2) To provide opportunities for education by the parents to their child.
Explanation: The 86th Amendment to the Constitution of India was passed by the Indian Parliament in 2002.
The 11th Fundamental Duty added by the 86th Amendment was – “Duty for all parents/guardians to send their children in the age group of 6-14 years to school.”

Ans: 4) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zorastrians and Jains
Explanation: The Union Government of India has set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Initially five religious communities :- Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians (Parsis) were notified as minority communities by the Union Government.
In a further notification dated 27th January 2014, Jains were also notified as another minority community.

Ans: 2) Presiding Officer
Explanation: The presiding officers run the show at each polling station.
They allow eligible voters whose name is present on the electoral roll to cast their vote on the Electronic Voting Machine (EVM).

Ans: 2) 52nd Amendment
Explanation: The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the Members of parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of Defection from one party to another. for this purpose, it made changes In four article of the constitution [ 101,102,190,191] & added a new Schedule (Tenth schedule). This act is often referred to as the Anti- Defection Law.

Ans: 2) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
Explanation: Justice P.N. Bhagwati has been called the father of public interest litigation in India due to his contribution to Public Interest Litigation jurisprudence.
PIL was first introduced in India in the early 1980s by the Supreme Court of India, with the objective of making justice more accessible to the poor and marginalized sections of society.
PIL allows any citizen to file a petition in the court seeking relief on behalf of the public or a group of people affected by a particular issue.

Ans: 2) (B) and (C) only
Explanation: The Following Statements are TRUE in regards to the powers of Speaker of Lok Sabha:
The Speaker can not preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration.
Speaker can vote in the house on any matters of his removal from the office.

Ans: 3) (A) and (B) only
Explanation:
A) The Berubari case – Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.
B) The Keshavananda Bharati case – In the Kesavananda Bharati case 1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
C) The LIC case – In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

Ans: 3) (A), (B), (C), (E) only
Explanation:
Article 26 gives religious denominations the right to:
Establish and maintain religious institutions (A)
Manage religious affairs (B)
Own and acquire both movable (C) and immovable property (E)
Managing social affairs (D) is not explicitly guaranteed under Article 26.

Ans: 4) A and D only
Explanation:
The statement “Only registered Civil Society Organisation can file a PIL” is NOT true about Public Interest Litigation (PIL). PIL can be filed not only by registered Civil Society Organisation, but also by any individual or group of individuals, including social activists, journalists, lawyers, and public-spirited citizens.

The statement “There is no court fees for filing PIL” is NOT true because while filing for a Public Interest Litigation, a court fee of Rs. 50 per respondent (i.e., for each number of party, court fees of Rs. 50) have to be affixed on the petition by the petitioner in a PIL Case.

The statements PIL can be filed in Supreme Court under Art 32 and High Courts under Art 226 are true.

Ans: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation: Statement I: The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. The Vice-President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for re-election to that office. He may be elected for any number of terms.
Statement II: The Constitution does not provide who is to discharge the functions and duties of Vice-President during the period of vacancy. The Constitution only provides the time of holding an election to fill the vacancy in the office of vice-president and the term of office of a person elected to fill the casual vacancy.
Both Statements are TRUE.

Ans: 2) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C) -(III), (D)-(IV)
Explanation:
Fourth Schedule – Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha
Tenth Schedule – Provisions relating to defection
Seventh Schedule – Division of powers between Centre and States
Sixth Schedule – Administration of tribal areas in some States

Ans: 2) (A), (C), (B) and (D)
Explanation: The Directive principles of state policy mentioned in the Constitution of India and their corresponding article numbers are:
1) Article 39(A) – To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
2) Article 44 – To secure a uniform civil code throughout the country for all citizens.
3) Article 39(D) – Equal pay for equal work for men and women.
4) Article 50 – Separation of the judiciary from the executive in the public services.

Ans: 3) Government of India Act 1935
Explanation: GoI Act, 1935 – The Government of India Act 1935 abolished the Dyarchy System in the Provinces and introduced the provincial autonomy.
This act was an important step towards India’s eventual independence, as it provided for the establishment of a federal system of government in India, with power divided between the central government and the provincial governments.
The act also provided for the establishment of a bicameral legislature at the center and in the provinces.

Ans: 4) The Supreme Court has also a wide original jurisdiction over all Court and Tribunals
Explanation: The Supreme Court of India does not have original jurisdiction over all courts and tribunals. Its original jurisdiction is limited to specific types of cases as mentioned in the Constitution of India. Like cases between the Government of India and one or more States, cases involving the violation of fundamental rights, and disputes between the States themselves.
In addition, it has the power to hear appeals from lower courts and tribunals in both civil and criminal cases, as well as to issue advisory opinions on questions of law and constitutionality referred to it by the President of India.

Ans: 2) Article 74
Explanation: Article 74 of the Constitution of India has provision for the forming of Council of Ministers and to aid and advise the President of India.
This article states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.

Ans: 1) Indira Jai Singh
Explanation: Indira Jaising is an Indian lawyer and human rights activist who has been advocating for greater transparency in the Indian judiciary for many years. In particular, she has been a vocal supporter of live streaming of court proceedings in India, including those of the Supreme Court.
Senior Advocate Indira Jaising, through her petition had approached the Apex Court seeking live streaming of not just constitution bench cases but also of other cases of national importance. In the Petition, Ms. Jaising asserts that live telecast of such cases will increase access to courts, and will “negate the chance of any misreporting, errors or second-hand information”.

Ans: 2) Constituent Assembly’s resolution on 22nd January 1947
Explanation: ‘Objectives Resolution’ was passed by Jawaharlal Nehru in the session of the constituent assembly. These resolutions were some guiding principles that helped our leaders in drafting the Constitution of India.
These principles were that :
That India will be an Independent, Sovereign, Republic.
It will be a democratic country
It will ensure all citizens of justice, equality, and freedom
It will safeguard the interests of minorities, tribes, and depressed classes
It will work for world peace and the welfare of all mankind.
Objective Resolution was signed on – 13th December, 1946.
Objective Resolution was adopted on – 22nd January, 1947.

Ans: 2) Union list contains 97 subjects
Explanation: The Seventh Schedule is the most important part of the constitution in this regard. It specifies the role and responsibilities into three lists – 1) Union List, 2) State List and 3) Concurrent List.
The three lists have been changed since they first came into being.
1) Union list contained 97 subjects and now it has 100 subjects.
2) State list contained 66 subjects and now it has 61 subjects.
3) Concurrent list contained 47 subjects and now it has 52 subjects.

Ans: 4) A, B, C, D
Explanation: In the context of Composition of the Constituent Assembly, all statements are correct –
A) Each princely state was to be allotted seats in proportion to their population.
B) Seats allotted to each British province were divided between Muslims, and Sikhs and other general population
C) The seats allotted to other community were to be elected by the member of that community in provincial legislative assembly
D) In the above process, proportional representation by means of single transferable vote system was followed

Ans: 3) A, C and D only
Explanation: The GST Council consists of the following members:
(a) The Union Finance Minister as the Chairperson.
(b) The Union Minister of State in-charge of Revenue or Finance.
(c) The Minister in-charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each state government.

Ans: 4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
Explanation: Statement I: “Equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India. is False.
All citizens of India are guaranteed the right to equality before the law, and this right is applicable to the President of India as well.
Statement II: “The President of India enjoys special privileges under the Constitution of India.” is True.
The President of India and the Governor of States enjoy the following immunities (Article 361):
(i) The President or the Governor is not answerable to any court the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of office.
(ii) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor in any court during his term office.
(iii) No civil proceedings against the President or the Governor shall be instituted during his term of office in any court in respect of act done by him in his personal capacity.

Ans: 3) Statement I is correct but Statement Il is false
Explanation: Statement I: “Mandal Commission report was a scheme for affirmative action for socially underprivileged sections of society.” is True.
Mandal Commission report, was released in 1980 and recommended that a certain percentage of government jobs and educational opportunities be
reserved for SEBCs (Socially and Educationally Backward Classes) in order to provide them with greater access to these resources. Here, Reservation stands for the scheme of affirmative action.
Statement II: “The Mandal Commission report was submitted to Government of India in 1979.” is False.
While the Janata Government appointed the Mandal Commission in 1979, but the Mandal Commission submitted its report in 1980.

Ans: 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation:
Statement I: India’s form of federalism is best seen as an original rather than a derivative or diminished form. is True.
This is because India’s federal system was designed and implemented in a very different historical and political context than many other federal systems around the world. India’s federalism is characterized by a strong central government with significant powers, but also by a complex system of devolution of power to states and local governments, with a high degree of fiscal decentralization and a relatively autonomous judiciary.
Statement II: India has defined its own constitutional practice of federalism rather than following earlier blueprint. is True.
India’s Constitution provides for a flexible and adaptable system of federalism that has evolved over time to meet the changing needs and demands of the country.

Ans: 2) A – I, B -II, C – III, D – IV
Explanation:
Appropriation Bill – Consists three types of Expenditure
Vote of Credit – Financial Grants given to the executive to meet urgent financial requirements
Charged Expenditure – Non-Votable Expenditure from Consolidated Fund
Vote on Account – A grant in-advance to the Central Government

Ans: 2) C, B, A, D
Explanation: The correct order in which of the following terms are enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution:
Justice
Liberty
Equality
Fraternity

Ans : 3) Vallabhbhai Patel
Explanation : Vallabhbhai Patel was the Chairman of the Advisory Committee of the Constituent Assembly on January 24, 1947.

Ans : 1) Legislative Councils in state
Explanation : Article 169 – Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States
(1) Notwithstanding anything in Article 168, Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting
(2) Any law referred to in clause ( 1 ) shall contain such provisions for the amendment of this Constitution as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions of the law and may also contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions as Parliament may deem necessary
(3) No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.

Ans : 1) He will perform the duties of the office of Chairman of the Council of States.
Explanation : Vice President while discharging the functions of the President :
will not perform the duties of the office of Chairman of the Council of States,
will not be entitled to any salary or allowances payable to the Chairman of the
Council of States, will not hold any office of profit.

Ans : 3) Minerva Mills case
Explanation : The Court ruled that if amendments to fundamental rights are consistent with the basic structural theory, the Parliament may modify the Constitution without impairing that principle.
The Court invalidated the section that limited judicial review.
The 42nd Amendment Act, which was passed in 1976 as a result of this judgment’s incompatibility with the law, stated that all Directive Principles of State Policy would have precedence over Articles 14 and 19’s Fundamental Rights. Inserted clauses (4) and (5) also stated that judicial review does not apply to the constitutional amendment under Article 368. This modification was passed to render the Kesavananda Bharati case ruling ineffective So that any law can be implemented without the fear of judicial scrutiny.

Ans : 2) Governor
Explanation : No money bill can be introduced without the governor’s recommendation. Such a bill is a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister. It can be introduced only in legislative assembly.
The bill if passed goes to the legislative council.

Ans : 1) A, C Only
Explanation : Growth of cooperative federalism in India caused by so many reasons and biggest example of this is NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog has been constituted to actualise the important goal of cooperative federalism and to enable good governance in India. On the premise that strong states make a strong nation, NITI Aayog acts as the quintessential platform for the Government of India by bringing States together as ‘Team India’ to work towards the national development agenda.

Ans : 1) C, A, B, D
Explanation : Freedom of Religion in India (Art. 25)
Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees freedom of religion to all persons in India. It provides that all persons in India, subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions:
Are equally entitled to freedom of conscience, and
Have the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion.
It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from making any law relating to:
Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with religious practice.
Providing social welfare and reform.
Opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the Hindus.

Ans : 3) Rajendra Prasad
Explanation : Rajendra Prasad said “Personally, I do not attach any importance to the label which may be attached to it whether you call it a federal constitution or unitary constitution or by any other name. It makes no difference so long as the constitution serves our Purpose”.

Ans : 4) The reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the Parliament
Explanation : Defined as the “most important officer in the Constitution of India” by Dr B.R. Ambedkar, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, is an independent jurisdiction authorised under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution. CAG of India, or also the “Guardian of the Public Purse”, is vested with the responsibility of inspecting and auditing all the expenditure of both the Central and the State Governments as well as of those organisations or the bodies which the government significantly funds.

Ans : 2) Santhanam Committee
Explanation : The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in 1964, as an apex body for exercising general superintendence and control over vigilance administration, through the Government of India Resolution of 11.2.1964. The main mandate of the Commission was based on the report of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, popularly known as the Santhanam Committee. The establishment of the Commission was considered essential for evolving and applying common standards in deciding cases involving lack of probity and integrity in administration.

Ans : 2) 4
Explanation : There were 4 languages added by the 92nd Constitutional Amendment, 2003 : Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali.

Ans : 1) A, B and D only
Explanation : The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body. It was established by the Constitution of India to conduct and regulate elections in the country. Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of the president of India, and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.
The election commission has the right to allow symbols to the political parties. It gives recognition to the national parties, state parties and regional parties. It sets limits on poll expenses. The commission prepare electoral rolls and update the voter’s list from time to time. Notifications of dates and schedules of election for filing nominations are issued by the commission. It is noteworthy that Election commission cannot allot same symbol to two regional political parties even if they are not in the same state.

Ans : 4) A – I, B – IV, C – III, D-II
Explanation :
A) Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes – 5th Schedule
B) List of Official Languages – 8th Schedule
C) Provision of Lists (Union, State, Concurrent) – 7th Schedule
D) Oath needs to be made by the Union of State Ministers – 3rd Schedule

Ans : 2) A, B and C only
Explanation : Six languages in India namely Tamil, Telugu, Sanskrit, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given the status of classical language. The first language to be accorded with that status is Tamil.

Ans : 1) Six Months
Explanation : The Vice-President acts as President, during casual vacancy in the office of the President by reason of death, resignation or removal or otherwise, until a new President is elected as soon as practicable and, in no case, later than six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy. When the President is unable to discharge his functions owing to absence, illness or any other cause, the Vice-President discharges those functions till the President resumes office. During this period, the Vice-President has all the powers, immunities and privileges of the President and receives emoluments and allowances payable to the President.

Ans : 3) 26 November 1949
Explanation : The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the offices of President and VicePresident held under this Constitution shall be vested in a Commission (referred to in this Constitution as the Election Commission)

Ans : 2) 42nd Amendment
Explanation : The 42nd amendment to the Indian Constitution, the Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, is well recognized for its contentious additions and modifications. The modifications were made in accordance with the recommendations provided by the Swaran Singh Committee, which Mrs.
Indira Gandhi had established for the same purpose. The Preamble, 40 clauses, the Seventh Schedule, and 14 additional Articles that were added to the Constitution were all modified by this amendment.

Ans : 2) Granville Austin
Explanation : Granville Austin referred to the Constituent Assembly of India as ‘Microcosm in action’.

Ans : 2) B and C only
Explanation : The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism. Set up under Article 280 of the Constitution, its core responsibility is to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments, recommend the sharing of taxes between them, lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States. Its working is characterised by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism. Its recommendations are also geared towards improving the quality of public spending and promoting fiscal stability. The first Finance Commission was set up in 1951 and there have been fifteen so far.

Ans : 2) A and C only
Explanation :
A) A Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament. However, a Money Bill can not be introduced in Rajya Sabha. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha with prior recommendation of the President for introduction in Lok Sabha. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker thereon is final.
B) The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
C) Article 75 (3) provides clearly that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. So, only Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers.
D) As per Article 61, when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The impeachment resolution needs to be passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership in each house. Thus, it is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.

Ans : 1) A only) The right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms.
Explanation : A nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India held unanimously that the right to privacy was a constitutionally protected right in India, as well as being incidental to other freedoms guaranteed by the Indian Constitution. The case, brought by retired High Court Judge Puttuswamy, challenged the Government’s proposed scheme for a uniform biometricsbased identity card which would be mandatory for access to government services and benefits. The Government argued that the Constitution did not grant specific protection for the right to privacy. The Court reasoned that privacy is an incident of fundamental freedom or liberty guaranteed under Article 21 which provides that: “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law”.

Ans : 3) A, B, C and D only
Explanation : A performance budget is one that reflects both the input of resources and the output of services for each unit of an organization. The goal is to identify and score relative performance based on goal attainment for specified outcomes. This type of budget is commonly used by government bodies and agencies to show the link between taxpayer funds and the outcome of services provided by federal, state, or local governments.

Ans : 2) United Kingdom
Explanation : United Kingdom has no provision for Judicial Review.

Ans : 3) Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Tripura
Explanation : There are five states of India which have the same number of representatives in the Lok Sabha are : Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, Manipur, Meghalaya and Tripura.

Ans : 4) Right to equality
Explanation : Right to equality is the fundamental rights which are provided to both citizens and non-citizens.

Ans : 4) Public Interest Litigation
Explanation : Factor for reforms in the Indian judicial system are :
The slowness and inaccessibility of the judicial process.
The antiquated nature of court procedure and management practices.
Flaws in procedural law, lack of effective control of court proceedings and availability.
The lowered standard of conduct, character and competence of the legal profession.
Hyper-activism of the judiciary by encroaching into jurisdiction

Ans : 2) Article 74
Explanation : Article 74 of the Constitution of the Republic of India provides for a Council of Ministers which shall aid the President in the exercise of the President’s functions.

Ans : 3) A, B and D only
Explanation : A Cabinet Mission came to India in 1946 in order to discuss the transfer of power from the British government to the Indian political leadership, with the aim of preserving India’s unity and granting its independence.

Ans : 3) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
Explanation :
A) 42nd Amendment – 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 is one of the most important amendments to the Indian Constitution. It was enacted by the Indian National Congress headed by Indira Gandhi then. Due to the large number of amendments this act has brought to the Indian Constitution, it is also known as ‘Mini-Constitution.’
B) 44th Amendment – 44th Amendment Act, 1978 was introduced to provide adequate safeguards against the recurrence of the tendency to take over the fundamental rights by the transient majority in the future and to ensure to the people an effective voice in determining the form of government under which they are to live. This act also nullified various provisions that were brought into the Indian Constitution as new articles or as amendments by the 42nd Amendment Act.
C) 15th Amendment – Enabled the High Court to issue writs to any person or authority even outside the jurisdiction of its terrorist if the cause of action arises within its territorial boundaries. High court judges increased their retirement age from 60 to 62 years.
D) 38th Amendment – The Thirty-eighth Amendment of the Constitution of India, officially known as The Constitution Act, 1975, made the declaration of “The Emergency” final and conclusive. In particular it codified and enlarged the State’s power to remove fundamental rights from its citizens during states of emergency.

Ans : 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Explanation of A.
Explanation : Lord Mountbatten arrived in India as the last Viceroy and was tasked by then-British Prime Minister Clement Atlee with ensuring a smooth transfer of power.
Mountbatten proposed in May 1947 that the provinces be declared independent successor states and then given the option of joining or not joining the constituent assembly. The ‘Dickie Bird Plan’ was the name given to this strategy.

Ans : 2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
Explanation :
A) Cabinet Government – Parliamentary government, also known as a cabinet government. The Principle of Collective Responsibility lies at the center of the Parliamentary form of government.
B) Presidential Government – The doctrine of separation of powers refers to the division of diverse powers among the legislative, executive, and judicial braches. It is the basis of the Presidential system of government.
C) Federal Government – In this form of government, powers are divided between the Centre and the State.
D) Unitary Government – There is no division of powers in this form of government. All powers are vested in the national Government.

Ans : (2) Creation of a new All India Service
Explanation : In the Article 312 of the constitution of India, provisions are made with respect to All India Services. The All India Services as well as All India Judicial Service can be created by parliament of India if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution which declares that it is essential in the interest of the nation.

Ans : (3) 21
Explanation : Judicial activism is the exercise of the power of judicial review to set aside government acts. Generally, the phrase is used to identify undesirable exercises of that power, but there is little agreement on which instances are undesirable.

Ans : (3) it reflects the spirit of ‘coming together’ federation
Explanation : The constitution of India has not described India as a federation.
However, Article 1 of Indian constitution describes India as a ‘’Union of States.’’ This means India is a union comprising of various states which are an integral part of it. Here, the states cannot break away from the union. They do not have the power to secede from the union. In a true federation, the constituting units or the states have the freedom to come out of the union. India is not a true federal government because it combines features of a federal government and the features of unitary government which can also be called as a quasi-federal government.

Ans : (3) (B) and (D) only
Explanation :
The Features of the Indian political system are :
Parliamentary form of government
Federal with strong Union
The indestructibility of the union
Independence of Supreme Court

Ans : (2) (A) -(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Explanation :
(A) Shankar Dayal Sharma – 1992-1997
(B) R. Venkatraman – 1987-1992
(C) Pratibha Patil – 2007-2012
(D) Pranab Mukherjee – 2012-2017

Ans : (2) (D), (A), (C), (B)
Explanation :
Article 19 guarantees six freedoms :
(i) Freedom of speech and expression
(ii) Freedom to assemble
(iii) Freedom to form associations/unions/cooperative societies
(iv) Freedom to move freely
(v) Freedom of residence
(vi) Freedom of profession

Ans : (3) (C), (A), (D), (B)
Explanation :
Public Accounts Committee – 1921
Estimates Committee – 1950
Committee on Public Undertakings – 1964
Departmental Standing Committee – 1989

Ans : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation : Article 1 of the Indian Constitution refers to the nation as a “Union of States.”
The federation was an indestructible entity, not the outcome of a state-tostate arrangement.

Ans : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Explanation : Every constitution has a philosophy of its own and Objectives Resolutions moved by Pandit Nehru which is now known as Preamble is philosophy of Indian Constitution.

Ans : 4) Registered (Unrecognized) Parties
Explanation : Classified category of political parties as defined by Election Commission of India : National, State and Regional Parties.

Ans : 3) (A) -(III); (B)- (IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(II)
Explanation : To protect Fundamental Rights the Indian Constitution, under Articles 32 and 226, provides the right to approach the Supreme Court or High Court, respectively, to any person whose Fundamental Right has been violated.
There are five types of writs :
1) Habeas Corpus
2) Mandamus
3) Prohibition
4) Certiorari
5) Quo-Warranto

Ans : 1) (A) -(III); (B)-(IV); (C)-(I); (D)-(II)
Explanation :
(A) Electoral System : The constitution’s Articles 324 to 329 deal with the commission’s and the member’s authority, function, tenure,
eligibility, etc.
(B) Services under the Union and States : Part XIV of the Indian Constitution, under Articles 308 to 323 deals with services under the Union and States.
(C) Panchayats : Article 243 to Article 243 0 are included in Part IX of the Constitution.
(D) Judicial system at Union level : Part V of the Constitution deals with the structure, impartiality, authority, functions, and processes of the Supreme Court in Articles 124 to 147.

Ans : 3) 15% members of the Lok Sabha
Explanation : According to the Constitution of India the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.

Ans : 1) Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A. V. Alexander
Explanation : The Cabinet Mission Plan was a statement made by the Cabinet Mission and the Viceroy, Lord Wavell, on May 16, 1946, that contained proposals regarding the constitutional future of India in the wake of Indian political parties and representatives not coming to an agreement. The members of the Cabinet Mission were: Lord Penthick-Lawrence, Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, and A.V Alexander, First Lord of Admiralty.

Ans : 2) Original Jurisdiction
Explanation : The Supreme Court of India has the power to adjudicate disputes between the Union and the states through original jurisdiction. As a federal court, the Supreme court decides the disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. More elaborately, any dispute between— 1. The centre and one or more states; or
2. The centre and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other; or
3. Between two or more states. In the above federal disputes, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction. Exclusive means, no other court can decide such disputes and original means, the power to hear such disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal.

Ans : 4) (b) and (c)
Explanation :
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Art. 338A) and
National Commission for Scheduled Castes are Constitutional bodies (Art.338).

Ans : 2) (C), (A), (D) and (B)
Explanation :
Kothari Committee – 1976
Satish Chandra Committee – 1989
Yoginder K. Algah Committee – 2001
Hota Committee – 2004