Security in the Contemporary World PYQs
Previous year question from CUET UG exam
From the 2024 Question Paper:
● Question 19: What is the full form of START?
○ (1) Strategic Arms Reduction Toll
○ (2) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
○ (3) Strategic Arms Reduction Tactics
○ (4) Strategic Arms Reduction Tax
Answer: (2) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
Explanation: START stands for Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty. These were a series of bilateral treaties between the United States and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR)/Russian Federation on the reduction and limitation of strategic offensive arms. The primary goal of these treaties was to control and reduce the number of nuclear weapons held by both superpowers, thus enhancing strategic stability and reducing the threat of nuclear war. The other options are incorrect as they do not represent the accurate full form of the acronym.
● Question 20: Which of the following is a threat to Global security ?
○ (1) Human Rights
○ (2) Arms Control
○ (3) Terrorism
○ (4) Disarmament
Answer: (3) Terrorism
Explanation: Terrorism is a significant and direct threat to global security. It involves the use of violence and intimidation, especially against civilians, in the pursuit of political aims. Terrorist acts destabilize governments, undermine civil society, and create a climate of fear and insecurity that transcends national borders. In contrast, Human Rights, Arms Control, and Disarmament are concepts and processes aimed at promoting and ensuring global security, not threatening it.
● Question 46: Which of the following treaties was rejected by India as discriminatory as it prevented only non-nuclear countries from acquiring nuclear weapons ?
○ (1) Intermediate Range Nuclear Force Treaty
○ (2) Non Proliferation Treaty
○ (3) Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty
○ (4) Strategic Offensive Reduction Treaty
Answer: (2) Non Proliferation Treaty
Explanation: India has consistently rejected the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968, arguing that it is discriminatory. India’s stance is that the NPT creates a system of “nuclear apartheid” by legitimizing the possession of nuclear weapons by the five permanent members of the UN Security Council (the “nuclear-haves”) while prohibiting all other nations from developing or acquiring them. India has advocated for a universal, non-discriminatory, and comprehensive disarmament treaty instead of one that it views as unfairly dividing the world into nuclear and non-nuclear states.
From the 2022 CUET UG Question Paper:
● Question 29: Choose the incorrect options with respect to India’s Nuclear Policy.
○ (A) Nehru had always put his faith in science and technology
○ (B) Communist China conducted nuclear tests in 1960
○ (C) The five permanent members of UN Security Council did not impose the NPT on the world
○ (D) India wanted to generate atomic energy for its security and use during war
○ (E) A nuclear program was initiated in 1940’s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha
○ Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
■ (1) (A), (B), (C) Only
■ (2) (C), (D), (E) Only
■ (3) (B), (C), (D) Only
■ (4) (A), (C), (E) Only
Answer: (3) (B), (C), (D) Only
Explanation: To identify the incorrect statements:
○ (A) Nehru had always put his faith in science and technology: This is a correct statement. Jawaharlal Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was a firm believer in the power of science and technology for national development and security.
○ (B) Communist China conducted nuclear tests in 1960: This is incorrect. China conducted its first nuclear test in October 1964, not 1960.9 This event was a significant factor in India’s own security calculations and its decision to pursue a nuclear program.
○ (C) The five permanent members of the UN Security Council did not impose the NPT on the world: This is an incorrect statement in its phrasing. The five permanent members (P5), who were also the declared nuclear-weapon states, were the primary architects of the NPT and strongly advocated for its adoption, effectively seeking to impose a non-proliferation regime on the rest of the world. While they did not use military force to impose it, they used their diplomatic weight and created a global norm. The textbook describes them as wanting to impose the treaty on the rest of the world.
○ (D) India wanted to generate atomic energy for its security and use during war: This is incorrect. India’s stated policy, especially in the initial decades under Nehru, was to use atomic energy for peaceful purposes like power generation and development, not for making weapons to be used in war. While security was a consideration, the explicit aim was not for wartime use but for deterrence and peaceful applications. The policy of “No First Use” further clarifies this.
○ (E) A nuclear program was initiated in 1940’s under the guidance of Homi J. Bhabha: This is a correct statement. India’s nuclear program was initiated in the late 1940s with the establishment of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR) and the Atomic Energy Commission, under the visionary leadership of Dr. Homi J. Bhabha.
Therefore, the incorrect statements are (B), (C), and (D), making option (3) the correct choice.
Practice questions from this chapter.
Questions
1. In what year was the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) established, banning the production of such weapons?
a) 1968
b) 1972
c) 1997
d) 1985
2. The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), which banned the production and possession of chemical weapons, was signed in which year?
a) 1972
b) 1988
c) 1997
d) 2001
3. How many states had acceded to the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) as mentioned in the document?
a) 193
b) 155
c) 50
d) 100
4. The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 allowed only those countries that had manufactured and tested nuclear weapons before which year to keep them?
a) 1965
b) 1967
c) 1968
d) 1970
5. What was the year of India’s first nuclear test?
a) 1962
b) 1971
c) 1974
d) 1998
6. In which year did India conduct its second round of nuclear tests, which the government justified as necessary for national security?
a) 1974
b) 1984
c) 1998
d) 1999
7. The Anti-ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty was signed in 1972 between which two countries?
a) China and the Soviet Union
b) The United States and the United Kingdom
c) The United States and the Soviet Union
d) India and Pakistan
8. The Cold War was responsible for approximately what portion of all wars fought in the post-Second World War period?
a) One-quarter
b) One-third
c) One-half
d) Two-thirds
9. Internal wars now constitute more than what percentage of all armed conflicts fought globally?
a) 75 per cent
b) 80 per cent
c) 90 per cent
d) 95 per cent
10. Between 1946 and 1991, the number of civil wars saw a rise of what magnitude?
a) Five-fold
b) Ten-fold
c) Twelve-fold
d) Twenty-fold
11. In which country did France fight a war in the 1950s against people who wanted independence?
a) Kenya
b) Algeria
c) Vietnam
d) India
12. The British fought against independence fighters in which African country during the 1950s and early 1960s?
a) Nigeria
b) South Africa
c) Egypt
d) Kenya
13. A government facing the threat of war has three basic choices: to surrender, to defend itself, and to do what?
a) Launch a preemptive attack
b) Seek economic sanctions
c) Prevent the attack through deterrence
d) Declare neutrality
14. The policy of building up one’s military power to be equal to or stronger than a potential adversary is known as what?
a) Alliance building
b) Confidence building
c) Disarmament
d) Balance of power
15. What is a coalition of states that coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack called?
a) A non-governmental organization
b) An alliance
c) A confederation
d) A customs union
16. What is the process in which countries share information about their military intentions and plans with rivals called?
a) Disarmament
b) Arms control
c) Confidence building
d) Deterrence
17. The concept of ‘human security’ was notably reflected in the Human Development Report of which organization in 1994?
a) World Bank
b) World Health Organisation
c) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
d) Amnesty International
18. The ‘narrow’ concept of human security, as articulated by former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan, focuses on protecting communities from what?
a) Hunger and disease
b) Economic inequality
c) Internal violence
d) Environmental degradation
19. The ‘broad’ concept of human security includes threats such as hunger, disease, and natural disasters, in addition to what?
a) Political corruption
b) War, genocide, and terrorism
c) Low economic growth
d) Border disputes
20. The idea of ‘global security’ emerged in which decade?
a) 1970s
b) 1980s
c) 1990s
d) 2000s
21. What name is given to political violence that deliberately and indiscriminately targets civilians?
a) Civil war
b) Insurgency
c) Terrorism
d) Revolution
22. The terrorist attacks on the World Trade Centre in America occurred on what date?
a) 11 September 2001
b) 26 November 2008
c) 7 July 2005
d) 11 March 2004
23. The world’s population is currently at 760 crore and is expected to grow to nearly what number by the middle of the 21st century?
a) 800 crore
b) 900 crore
c) 1000 crore
d) 1200 crore
24. Which of the following is NOT one of the six countries where half of the world’s population growth currently occurs?
a) India
b) Brazil
c) Nigeria
d) Indonesia
25. Individuals who voluntarily leave their home countries are known as what?
a) Refugees
b) Internally displaced people
c) Asylum seekers
d) Migrants
26. Individuals who flee from war, natural disaster, or political persecution are called what?
a) Migrants
b) Expatriates
c) Refugees
d) Colonists
27. The Kashmiri Pandits who fled violence in the Kashmir Valley in the early 1990s are an example of what group?
a) Refugees
b) Migrants
c) An internally displaced community
d) Expatriates
28. From 1990 to 1995, approximately how many people were killed in 93 wars involving 70 states?
a) 25 lakh
b) 55 lakh
c) 75 lakh
d) 1 crore
29. By 2003, an estimated 4 crore people were infected with HIV-AIDS worldwide, with two-thirds of them located in which continent?
a) Asia
b) South America
c) Africa
d) Europe
30. Besides Africa, which region contained half of the remaining global HIV-AIDS cases in 2003?
a) South Asia
b) Latin America
c) Eastern Europe
d) North America
31. In 1994, the Hutu tribe killed nearly five lakh people from which rival tribe in Rwanda?
a) Zulu
b) Tutsi
c) Maasai
d) Xhosa
32. A sea-level rise of 1.5-2.0 meters due to global warming would flood what percentage of Bangladesh?
a) 10 percent
b) 20 percent
c) 30 percent
d) 50 percent
33. Which international agreement, signed in 1997, provides a roadmap for reducing greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Paris Agreement
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) Geneva Convention
d) Earth Summit
34. India has been involved in military conflicts with China in which year?
a) 1947
b) 1962
c) 1965
d) 1999
35. The US-backed Islamic militants in Afghanistan in the 1980s were fighting against which country?
a) Iran
b) The Soviet Union
c) India
d) China
36. Which of the following is NOT listed as an area in India that has had militant groups seeking to break away?
a) Nagaland
b) Mizoram
c) Kerala
d) Kashmir
37. A policy concerned with preventing war is called what?
a) Defence
b) Disarmament
c) Deterrence
d) Alliance
38. A policy concerned with limiting or ending war is called what?
a) Defence
b) Deterrence
c) Balance of power
d) Confidence building
39. What is the referent, or the primary object of protection, in the traditional conception of security?
a) The individual
b) The international community
c) The state
d) Humanity
40. What is the primary goal of the “human security” approach?
a) The protection of states
b) The protection of people
c) The protection of national economies
d) The protection of governments
41. In the last 100 years, more people have been killed by whom than by foreign armies?
a) Terrorist groups
b) Natural disasters
c) Their own governments
d) Pandemics
42. What is the third type of human rights, following political rights and economic/social rights?
a) The rights of children
b) The rights of animals
c) The rights of colonised people or ethnic and indigenous minorities
d) The rights of corporations
43. Which sub-Saharan African nation is mentioned as having the “worst case” of HIV-AIDS, with one in three adults having the disease?
a) Nigeria
b) South Africa
c) Botswana
d) Kenya
44. Which international organization’s charter is cited by some as empowering the international community to take up arms for human rights?
a) NATO
b) World Trade Organisation
c) The UN
d) The IMF
45. Who was India’s first Prime Minister, who supported causes like Asian solidarity and decolonisation?
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Indira Gandhi
46. An “equitable New International Economic Order (NIEO)” was argued for by which country?
a) United States
b) Soviet Union
c) China
d) India
47. In addition to military power, which two types of power are also important for maintaining a balance of power?
a) Cultural and religious
b) Economic and technological
c) Social and political
d) Judicial and legislative
48. A government’s use of force is considered more legitimate under non-traditional security when it is sanctioned and applied by whom?
a) The country itself, acting alone
b) A regional power
c) The international community collectively
d) A superpower
49. What type of security threat is the spread of chikungunya or dengue fever?
a) Traditional security concern
b) Non-traditional security concern
c) Not a threat
d) A military threat
50. The term ‘peacekeeping force’ can be considered paradoxical because it implies using what to maintain peace?
a) Diplomacy
b) Economic aid
c) Force
d) Sanctions
Answers and Explanations
1. b) 1972. The 1972 Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) banned the production and possession of these weapons.
2. c) 1997. The 1997 Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) was established for this purpose.
3. b) 155. More than 155 states acceded to the BWC.
4. b) 1967. The NPT of 1968 allowed countries that had tested and manufactured nuclear weapons before 1967 to keep them4.
5. c) 1974. India first tested a nuclear device in 19745.
6. c) 1998. India’s decision to conduct nuclear tests in 1998 was justified by the government as a measure for safeguarding national security.
7. c) The United States and the Soviet Union. The Anti-ballistic Missile (ABM) Treaty in 1972 was an agreement between the United States and the Soviet Union.
8. b) One-third. The Cold War was responsible for approximately one-third of all wars in the post-Second World War period.
9. d) 95 per cent. Internal wars now make up more than 95 per cent of all armed conflicts fought anywhere in the world.
10. c) Twelve-fold. Between 1946 and 1991, there was a twelve-fold rise in the number of civil wars.
11. c) Vietnam. The French were fighting in Vietnam in the 1950s against those wanting independence.
12. d) Kenya. The British were fighting in Kenya in the 1950s and the early 1960s.
13. c) Prevent the attack through deterrence. A government has three basic choices: to surrender, to prevent the other side from attacking (deterrence), and to defend itself when war breaks out.
14. d) Balance of power. Maintaining a favourable balance of power involves building up one’s military power.
15. b) An alliance. An alliance is defined as a coalition of states that coordinate their actions to deter or defend against military attack.
16. c) Confidence building. Confidence building is a process in which countries share ideas and information with their rivals about military intentions.
17. c) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). The concern for human security was reflected in the 1994 UNDP’s Human Development Report.
18. c) Internal violence. The ‘narrow’ concept focuses on “the protection of communities and individuals from internal violence”.
19. b) War, genocide, and terrorism. Proponents of the ‘broad’ concept argue that hunger, disease and natural disasters kill more people than war, genocide and terrorism combined.
20. c) 1990s. The idea of global security emerged in the 1990s in response to global threats.
21. c) Terrorism. Terrorism refers to political violence that targets civilians deliberately and indiscriminately.
22. a) 11 September 2001. Terrorists attacked the World Trade Centre in America on 11 September 2001.
23. c) 1000 crore. The world population is expected to grow to nearly 1000 crore by the middle of the 21st century.
24. b) Brazil. Half the world’s population growth occurs in just six countries—India, China, Pakistan, Nigeria, Bangladesh and Indonesia.
25. d) Migrants. International law and norms make a distinction between migrants (those who voluntarily leave their home countries) and refugees.
26. c) Refugees. Refugees are defined as those who flee from war, natural disaster or political persecution.
27. c) An internally displaced community. People who have fled their homes but remain within national borders are called ‘internally displaced people,’ with Kashmiri Pandits cited as an example.
28. b) 55 lakh. From 1990 to 1995, 70 states were involved in 93 wars which killed about 55 lakh people.
29. c) Africa. By 2003, an estimated 4 crore people were infected with HIV-AIDS worldwide, two-thirds of them in Africa.
30. a) South Asia. Of the remaining cases outside Africa, half were in South Asia.
31. b) Tutsi. In 1994, the Tutsi tribe in Rwanda faced a threat to its existence as nearly five lakh of its people were killed by the rival Hutu tribe.
32. b) 20 percent. Due to global warming, a sea level rise of 1.5-2.0 meters would flood 20 percent of Bangladesh.
33. b) Kyoto Protocol. The 1997 Kyoto Protocol provides a roadmap for reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases.
34. b) 1962. India has been involved in conflicts with its neighbours, including China in 1962.
35. b) The Soviet Union. The US backed the Islamic militants in Afghanistan against the Soviet Union in the 1980s.
36. c) Kerala. Several militant groups from areas such as the Nagaland, Mizoram, the Punjab, and Kashmir have sought to break away from India.
37. c) Deterrence. Security policy is concerned with preventing war, which is called deterrence.
38. a) Defence. Security policy is also concerned with limiting or ending war, which is called defence.
39. c) The state. In the traditional security conception, the referent is the state with its territory and governing institutions.
40. b) The protection of people. Human security is about the protection of people more than the protection of states.
41. c) Their own governments. During the last 100 years, more people have been killed by their own governments than by foreign armies.
42. c) The rights of colonised people or ethnic and indigenous minorities. This is listed as the third type of human right.
43. c) Botswana. For countries in Southern Africa, HIV-AIDS poses a serious threat, with Botswana mentioned as the worst case where one in three adults has the disease.
44. c) The UN. Some argue that the UN Charter empowers the international community to take up arms in defence of human rights.
45. c) Jawaharlal Nehru. India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, supported the cause of Asian solidarity, decolonisation, and disarmament.
46. d) India. India argued for an equitable New International Economic Order (NIEO).
47. b) Economic and technological. Economic and technological power are also important since they are the basis for military power.
48. c) The international community collectively. Non-traditional security is much better when the use of force is sanctioned and applied collectively by the international community.
49. b) Non-traditional security concern. The spread of diseases is a non-traditional threat that can affect human security.
50. c) Force. The term is considered paradoxical because a “peacekeeping force” often implies the use of military personnel or ‘force’ to achieve ‘peace’.
