Practice Questions: Challenges of Nation Building | PYQs

Challenges of Nation Building | PYQs | Political Science

(Based on NCERT Chapter 1: Challenges of Nation Building and selected questions from provided CUET UG papers)

1. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.39] The ‘two-nation theory’ was advanced by which of the following party?

(1) Janata Dal

(2) Muslim League

(3) Socialist Party

(4) Swatantra Party

Correct Answer: (2) Muslim League

Explanation: The two-nation theory, which argued that Hindus and Muslims were distinct nations and advocated for a separate homeland for Muslims, was championed by the Muslim League. This theory formed the ideological basis for the creation of Pakistan.

2. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.40] Who was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?

(1) Mahatma Gandhi

(2) Sardar Patel

(3) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

(4) Potti Sriramulu

Correct Answer: (3) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Explanation: Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a Pashtun leader from the North-West Frontier Province, was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’ due to his close association with Mahatma Gandhi and his leadership of the non-violent Khudai Khidmatgar movement.

3. [June 17 Shift 3, Q.524] In 1947, the rulers of most of the states signed a document, which meant that their state agreed to become a part of the union of India. Identify from the following.

(1) Akhand Bharat

(2) Instrument of Accession

(3) Instrument of Authority

(4) Instrument of All together

Correct Answer: (2) Instrument of Accession

Explanation: The Instrument of Accession was the legal document used in 1947 that allowed the rulers of princely states to accede their states to either the Dominion of India or Pakistan. By signing it, a state agreed to become part of the Union.

4. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.38] Which of the following Princely States were reluctant to sign the Instrument of Accession with India?

(1) Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Punjab

(2) Kerala, Hyderabad, Bombay

(3) Assam, Goa, Tripura

(4) Hyderabad, Junagadh, Kashmir

Correct Answer: (4) Hyderabad, Junagadh, Kashmir

Explanation: While most princely states readily joined India, Hyderabad, Junagadh, and Kashmir initially hesitated or resisted signing the Instrument of Accession, leading to specific challenges in their integration.

5. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.37] Who among the following entered into Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947?

(1) Maharaja of Manipur

(2) Nizam of Hyderabad

(3) Nawab of Junagadh

(4) Maharaja of Kashmir

Correct Answer: (2) Nizam of Hyderabad

Explanation: The Nizam of Hyderabad initially chose independence and entered into a Standstill Agreement with India in November 1947 to maintain the status quo while negotiations continued. This agreement aimed to keep existing administrative arrangements in place temporarily.

6. [CUET 2022 PLS35, Q.29] Which princely state’s accession to India proved most difficult, involving a popular movement against the ruler, the violence of the Razakars, and finally, police action by the Indian army?

(1) Junagadh

(2) Kashmir

(3) Manipur

(4) Hyderabad

Correct Answer: (4) Hyderabad

Explanation: The accession of Hyderabad was particularly complex. The Nizam desired independence, supported by the violent paramilitary force, the Razakars, who suppressed the popular movement favouring accession to India. This ultimately led to Indian military intervention (“police action” or Operation Polo) in 1948.

7. [CUET 2022 PLS35, Q.27] Identify the correct statement about the Partition of India.

(a) It was based on the ‘two-nation theory’.

(b) All Muslim-majority areas readily agreed to join Pakistan.

(c) Punjab and Bengal were divided based on religious majorities at the district level.

(d) The problem of minorities on both sides of the border was anticipated and well-managed.

Correct Answer: Statements (a) and (c) are generally considered correct in this context.

Explanation:

(a) The Partition was fundamentally based on the ‘two-nation theory’ advanced by the Muslim League.

(c) The provinces of Punjab and Bengal, which had large non-Muslim populations alongside Muslim majorities, were divided, with boundaries drawn based on contiguous religious majorities primarily at the district or tehsil level.

(b) is incorrect as areas like the North-West Frontier Province and Sylhet (in Assam) had referendums, and not all Muslim-majority areas joined Pakistan without contestation.

(d) is incorrect; the massive violence and displacement indicate the problem of minorities was not well-managed.

8. [June 19 Shift 3, Q.54] Name the Gandhian worker who went on a fast in 1946 demanding that temples in Madras province be opened to Dalits (and later fasted for a separate Andhra state).

(1) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

(2) Potti Sriramulu

(3) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

(4) Rafi Ahmed Kidwai

Correct Answer: (2) Potti Sriramulu

Explanation: Potti Sriramulu, a dedicated Gandhian, undertook fasts for Dalit rights, including temple entry in Nellore (part of Madras Presidency then) around 1946. He later undertook a fast unto death in 1952 demanding the formation of a separate Andhra state for Telugu speakers, which was granted after his death.

9. [June 17 Shift 3, Q.523] “If linguistic provinces are formed, it will also give a fillip to the regional languages. It would be absurd to make Hindustani the medium of instruction in all the regions and it is still more absurd to use English for this purpose”. Who said the above lines (words)?

(1) Mahatma Gandhi

(2) Vallabh Bhai Patel

(3) Jawaharlal Nehru

(4) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan

Correct Answer: (1) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi was a strong advocate for reorganizing provinces on a linguistic basis to facilitate administration and education in regional languages, believing it essential for Swaraj and empowering people. He reorganized the Congress party itself along linguistic lines as early as 1920.

10. [CUET 2022 PLS35, Q.28 Consider the following statements regarding linguistic states:

Assertion (A): The formation of linguistic states helped strengthen the foundation of democracy and national unity in India.

Reason (R): Accepting the regional and linguistic claims of different regions reduced the threat of separatism.

Correct Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: While there were initial fears that linguistic states might weaken India, experience showed the opposite. Reorganizing states based on language acknowledged regional identities, accommodated linguistic demands, and ultimately strengthened national unity by reducing friction and separatist tendencies that might have arisen from suppressing these aspirations.

11. [July 2 Shift 3, Q.1023] Match List I with List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

Correct Answer: (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Explanation:

12. [June 17 Shift 3, Q.533] In which year was the state of Nagaland created?

(1) 1963

(2) 1972

(3) 1987

(4) 1989

Correct Answer: (1) 1963

Explanation: The State of Nagaland Act was passed in 1962, and Nagaland was formally inaugurated as the 16th state of India on December 1, 1963.

13. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.1] Which of the following political party led the movement for the formation of Punjabi Suba?

(1) Congress

(2) Lok Dal

(3) Akali Dal

(4) CPI

Correct Answer: (3) Akali Dal

Explanation: The Shiromani Akali Dal led the political movement demanding the creation of a Punjabi-speaking state, known as the Punjabi Suba movement, which eventually led to the formation of the current state of Punjab in 1966.

14. [CUET 2022 PLS35, Q.25] Match List I with List – II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A)-(I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)

(2) (A)-(II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

(3) (A)-(III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)

(4) (A)-(IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (1)

Correct Answer: (2) (A)-(II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

Explanation:

(A) Instrument of Accession – (II) The document by which a princely state agreed to become part of the Union of India.

(B) Merger agreement – (I) Refers to agreements where smaller states merged with larger administrative units or provinces (often involving the Centre).

(C) Vishalandhra Movement – (IV) The movement demanding that Telugu-speaking areas be separated from Madras Province to form a larger Andhra state (‘Vishalandhra’).

(D) States Reorganisation Commission – (III) The body set up to recommend the redrawing of state boundaries, primarily on linguistic lines.

15. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.32] North-East region consists of seven States called:

(1) Seven Sisters

(2) Seven Stars

(3) Seven Seas

(4) Seven Brothers

Correct Answer: (1) Seven Sisters

Explanation: The seven contiguous states in North-East India (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura) are popularly known as the ‘Seven Sisters’. Sikkim is sometimes referred to as the ‘brother’ state.

16. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.33] Which of the following countries does the North-East region share its boundaries with?

(1) China, Nepal and Bangladesh

(2) China, Bhutan and Bangladesh

(3) China, Myanmar and Bangladesh

(4) China, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh

Correct Answer: (3) China, Myanmar and Bangladesh

Explanation: India’s North-Eastern region shares international borders with China to the north, Myanmar to the east, and Bangladesh to the south-west. It also borders Bhutan and Nepal. Option (3) lists three of these key neighbours.

17. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.34] In which year was the State of Nagaland created?

(1) 1961

(2) 1963

(3) 1965

(4) 1967

Correct Answer: (2) 1963

Explanation: As established in question 12, Nagaland became a state in 1963.

18. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.35] Khasi tribes, an ethnic group, are the inhabitants of which of the following States?

(1) Manipur

(2) Mizoram

(3) Nagaland

(4) Meghalaya

Correct Answer: (4) Meghalaya

Explanation: The Khasi people are the major ethnic group inhabiting the eastern part of Meghalaya, particularly the Khasi Hills.

19. [CUET 2024 Set A, Q.36] The North-East serves as gateway to which of the regions mentioned below?

(1) South-East Asia

(2) South Asia

(3) West Asia

(4) Europe

Correct Answer: (1) South-East Asia

Explanation: Due to its geographical location sharing borders with Myanmar, India’s North-East region is strategically considered the country’s land gateway to South-East Asia.