0 of 50 questions completed
Questions:
| You have not visited the question yet. | |
| You have not answered the question. | |
| You have answered the question. | |
| You have NOT answered the question, but have marked it for review. | |
| Answered & Marked for Review questions will be considered for evaluation. |
For Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
0 of 50 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
| Average score | |
| Your score |
Direction for Questions (1 to 5):
The following table shows the total number of Runs scored by five leading batters (A-E) in 20 Twenty20 (T20) cricket matches of the Women’s Premier League (WPL)-2026, along with the highest number of Runs scored in any of these 20 matches and the number of matches in which each Batter has scored 100 or more runs, scored from 50 to 99 Runs and scored zero (0) Runs.
Based on the data in the table, answer the questions that follow:
Batter-wise Performance Details in 20 T20 Cricket Matches:
| Batter | Total Number of Runs in 20 matches | Highest Number of Runs in anyone of 20 matches | Number of Matches with 100 or more Runs | Number of Matches with 50-99 Runs | Zero (0) Runs |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| A | 988 | 141 | 5 | 3 | 1 |
| B | 752 | 130 | 1 | 8 | 2 |
| C | 409 | 52 | – | 1 | 2 |
| D | 653 | 94 | – | 4 | 1 |
| E | 750 | 85 | – | 7 | – |
Note: The symbol ‘-‘ is assumed to mean zero occurrences.
Q.1. What will be the average of the total number of Runs scored by Batter C, excluding the number of matches where she scored zero Runs and the one where she scored highest number of Runs?
= 21
= 21
Q.2. The difference between the two highest total numbers of runs scored by batters is equal to the difference between the two lowest total numbers of runs scored by batters (in all 20 matches taken together).
Q.3. Excluding the one match with the highest number of Runs in any one of the 20 matches and the number of matches with 50-99 Runs, what will be the average of the total number of Runs scored by Batter B in various matches, assuming that she scored a total of 402 Runs in 8 matches in the range from 50 to 99 Runs?
= 20
= 20
Q.4. If P, Q, R, S and T, respectively, represent the number of matches where each of the five Batters (A-E) scored from 1 to 49 Runs, then which of the following order is correct?
Q.5. If M and N, respectively, represent the average number of Runs scored by the top two batters in terms of total number of Runs, excluding the number of matches where they scored zero (0) Runs, then M-N = ____________
= 52
= 39
= 52
= 39
Q.6. Which fallacy is involved in the following argument?
“All household pets are animals. No unicorns are animals. Therefore, some unicorns are not household pets”
Ans: (2) Existential Fallacy
Explanation: The argument has universal premises (‘All’ and ‘No’) but draws a particular conclusion (‘some’), committing the existential fallacy in Aristotelian logic by assuming existence from universal premises.
Ans: (2) Existential Fallacy
Explanation: The argument has universal premises (‘All’ and ‘No’) but draws a particular conclusion (‘some’), committing the existential fallacy in Aristotelian logic by assuming existence from universal premises.
Q.7. Identify the correct order of the digital communication “Platforms” (A-D) based on the “Actions” (I-IV) given below::
| Action | Platform |
|---|---|
| I. “I am attending a live department meeting and sharing my screen.” | A. Twitter (X) |
| II. “I am writing a 1000-word tutorial on how to bake bread.” | B. Blog |
| III. “I am updating my work experience to attract new recruiters.” | C. MS-Teams |
| IV. “I am posting a 200-characters thought on a trending news story.” | D. LinkedIn |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) C, B, D, A
Explanation: Action I matches MS-Teams (C), Action II matches Blog (B), Action III matches LinkedIn (D), Action IV matches Twitter/X (A). Sequence: C, B, D, A.
Ans: (1) C, B, D, A
Explanation: Action I matches MS-Teams (C), Action II matches Blog (B), Action III matches LinkedIn (D), Action IV matches Twitter/X (A). Sequence: C, B, D, A.
Q.8. A pictorial presentation to show the structure of communication process in which various elements are linked: is known as:
Ans: (3) Model
Explanation: A model is a visual or abstract representation that maps out the structure and relationship of elements in the communication process.
Ans: (3) Model
Explanation: A model is a visual or abstract representation that maps out the structure and relationship of elements in the communication process.
Q.9. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Communication Theory) | LIST-II (Coined/Developed/Formulated By) |
|---|---|
| A. Cognitive Dissonance | I. Denis McQuail |
| B. The Cultivation | II. Maxwell McCombs and Donald L. Shaw |
| C. Agenda Setting | III. George Gerbner |
| D. Democratic-Participant Media | IV. L.A Festinger |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Explanation: Matching communication theories with their originators. Cognitive Dissonance is Festinger, Cultivation is Gerbner, Agenda Setting is Shaw, and Democratic-Participant is McQuail.
Ans: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Explanation: Matching communication theories with their originators. Cognitive Dissonance is Festinger, Cultivation is Gerbner, Agenda Setting is Shaw, and Democratic-Participant is McQuail.
Q.10. In the context of computers, which of the following statements A-D are true?
A. CPU stands for Computer Processing Unit and Control Unit is part of CPU.
B. Solid State Drive (SSD) is a fast storage device that uses flash memory and has no moving parts.
C. Hard Disk Drive (HDD) is a storage device that uses spinning disks to store and retrieve data.
D. A touch screen is a unique device that functions as both an input and output device.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) B, C and D Only
Explanation: CPU stands for Central Processing Unit (making statement A false due to ‘Computer’). SSD, HDD descriptions and touch screen dual functionality (B, C, D) are correct.
Ans: (1) B, C and D Only
Explanation: CPU stands for Central Processing Unit (making statement A false due to ‘Computer’). SSD, HDD descriptions and touch screen dual functionality (B, C, D) are correct.
Q.11. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Fallacy) | LIST-II (Reason) |
|---|---|
| A. Sādhārana | I. The middle term is non-exclusive. |
| B. Svarūpāsiddha | II. The middle term is too wide. |
| C. Asādhārana | III. The minor term is not real. |
| D. Anupsamhari | IV. The middle term is too narrow. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Explanation: Matching Nyaya hetvābhāsa fallacies with their definitions. Sādhārana is too wide, Svarūpāsiddha has unestablished middle, Asādhārana is too narrow, and Anupsamhari is non-exclusive.
Ans: (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Explanation: Matching Nyaya hetvābhāsa fallacies with their definitions. Sādhārana is too wide, Svarūpāsiddha has unestablished middle, Asādhārana is too narrow, and Anupsamhari is non-exclusive.
Q.12. In a certain code language ‘DEVELOPMENT’ is written as ‘CFUFKPONDOS’. How ‘REVOLUTION’ shall be coded in that language?
Ans: (3) QFUPKVSJNO
Explanation: Analyzing letter shift patterns in DEVELOPMENT -> CFUFKPONDOS and applying the same rule to REVOLUTION yields QFUPKVSJNO.
Ans: (3) QFUPKVSJNO
Explanation: Analyzing letter shift patterns in DEVELOPMENT -> CFUFKPONDOS and applying the same rule to REVOLUTION yields QFUPKVSJNO.
Q.13. Which of the following pairs of ICT acronyms and their expansions are correctly matched?
A. OCR – Optical Character Recognition
B. GPS – Global Positioning Sensor
C. GUI – Graphical User Interface
D. RAM – Rapid Access Memory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) A and C Only
Explanation: OCR is Optical Character Recognition and GUI is Graphical User Interface. GPS is Global Positioning System, and RAM is Random Access Memory.
Ans: (4) A and C Only
Explanation: OCR is Optical Character Recognition and GUI is Graphical User Interface. GPS is Global Positioning System, and RAM is Random Access Memory.
Q.14. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Hardware/Software) | LIST-II (Description) |
|---|---|
| A. CPU | I. System Software |
| B. Windows-11 | II. Brain of the Computer |
| C. Safari | III. Network Traffic Device |
| D. Router | IV. Web Browser |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation: CPU is brain of computer (A-II), Windows-11 is system software (B-I), Safari is web browser (C-IV), Router is network traffic device (D-III).
Ans: (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation: CPU is brain of computer (A-II), Windows-11 is system software (B-I), Safari is web browser (C-IV), Router is network traffic device (D-III).
Q.15. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Researcher Type) | LIST-II (Description) |
|---|---|
| A. Ethnographic | I. Solves immediate problems in a specific setting, often collaboratively (e.g., improving classroom management) |
| B. Fundamental | II. Seeks to understand cultures and communities in their natural setting through immersion, often employing qualitative methods. |
| C. Action | III. Focuses on collecting and analyzing numerical data to describe, predict, or control variables of interest |
| D. Quantitative | IV. Primarily aims to test existing theories or build new ones |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Explanation: Ethnographic studies cultures through immersion (A-II), Fundamental research builds/tests theories (B-IV), Action research solves immediate problems (C-I), Quantitative uses numerical data (D-III).
Ans: (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Explanation: Ethnographic studies cultures through immersion (A-II), Fundamental research builds/tests theories (B-IV), Action research solves immediate problems (C-I), Quantitative uses numerical data (D-III).
Q.16. Which of the following are not the methods for “in-situ” conservation of Biodiversity?
A. Zoo
B. National Park
C. Botanical Garden
D. Seed Bank
E. Wildlife Sanctuary
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) A, C and D Only
Explanation: Zoos, botanical gardens, and seed banks are ex-situ conservation methods (off-site), whereas national parks and wildlife sanctuaries are in-situ (on-site). Thus A, C, and D are not in-situ.
Ans: (4) A, C and D Only
Explanation: Zoos, botanical gardens, and seed banks are ex-situ conservation methods (off-site), whereas national parks and wildlife sanctuaries are in-situ (on-site). Thus A, C, and D are not in-situ.
Q.17. Which of the following is/are correct?
A. The average of the squares of first seven natural numbers = 20
B. The average of the cubes of first 5 natural numbers = 42
C. Average of first n multiples of any number = number * (n + 1) / 2
D. Average of 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23 and 25 = 13
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A, C and D Only
Explanation: Verifying average formulas for squares, cubes, multiples, and arithmetic progressions. A, C, and D are mathematically correct.
Ans: (3) A, C and D Only
Explanation: Verifying average formulas for squares, cubes, multiples, and arithmetic progressions. A, C, and D are mathematically correct.
Q.18. An institute which “serves as a pivotal player in developing highly skilled personnel within the specified region” is called:
Ans: (4) Institute of National Importance
Explanation: Institutions of National Importance (INIs) are recognized as premier institutions serving as pivotal hubs for developing highly skilled personnel.
Ans: (4) Institute of National Importance
Explanation: Institutions of National Importance (INIs) are recognized as premier institutions serving as pivotal hubs for developing highly skilled personnel.
Q.19. Prior to NEP (2020), which act laid down legal underpinnings for achieving universal elementary education?
Ans: (2) Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (2009)
Explanation: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 provided the legal framework implementing Article 21A for universal elementary education.
Ans: (2) Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (2009)
Explanation: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 provided the legal framework implementing Article 21A for universal elementary education.
Q.20. In pre-colonial India, Higher Education was taught in these languages:
A. Arabic
B. Punjabi
C. Persian
D. Hindi
E. Sanskrit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A, C and E Only
Explanation: Higher education in pre-colonial India was primarily imparted in classical and scholarly languages such as Sanskrit, Arabic, and Persian.
Ans: (3) A, C and E Only
Explanation: Higher education in pre-colonial India was primarily imparted in classical and scholarly languages such as Sanskrit, Arabic, and Persian.
Q.21. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II, according to School Education (NEP 2020):
| LIST-I (Education level) | LIST-II (Age group) |
|---|---|
| A. SECONDARY | I. 3-8 years |
| B. MIDDLE | II. 8-11 years |
| C. PREPARATORY | III. 14-18 years |
| D. FOUNDATIONAL | IV. 11-14 years |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Explanation: Under NEP 2020 5+3+3+4 design: Foundational (3-8 yrs, I), Preparatory (8-11 yrs, II), Middle (11-14 yrs, IV), Secondary (14-18 yrs, III). Thus A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.
Ans: (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Explanation: Under NEP 2020 5+3+3+4 design: Foundational (3-8 yrs, I), Preparatory (8-11 yrs, II), Middle (11-14 yrs, IV), Secondary (14-18 yrs, III). Thus A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I.
Q.22. Arrange the areas of following shapes in descending order of their values:
A. A sphere of diameter 0.35 m
B. Curved surface of a cylinder of length 1.0 m and radius 0.2 m
C. A square of side 2.4 m
D. A circular strip of inner radius 2.5 m and outer radius 3.5 m
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) D, C, B, A
Explanation: Calculating surface areas and region areas: D (~18.85), C (5.76), B (~1.26), A (~0.39). Descending order: D, C, B, A.
Ans: (3) D, C, B, A
Explanation: Calculating surface areas and region areas: D (~18.85), C (5.76), B (~1.26), A (~0.39). Descending order: D, C, B, A.
Q.23. As per NEP 2020, an Autonomous Degree-granting College is an institution that:
A. grants undergraduate degrees
B. is a co-educational one
C. has a good canteen
D. is mainly focused on undergraduate teaching
E. is smaller than a typical university
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A, D and E Only
Explanation: NEP 2020 defines autonomous degree-granting colleges as institutions granting undergraduate degrees, focusing primarily on undergraduate teaching, and typically smaller than universities.
Ans: (3) A, D and E Only
Explanation: NEP 2020 defines autonomous degree-granting colleges as institutions granting undergraduate degrees, focusing primarily on undergraduate teaching, and typically smaller than universities.
Q.24. Choose the simple hardwares from the following used by the teacher in classroom instruction:
A. Epidiascope
B. Slide projector
C. Teaching machine
D. Television
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A and B Only
Explanation: Epidiascopes and slide projectors are classified as traditional projection hardware (simple non-electronic/projected aids) compared to complex electronic teaching machines or televisions.
Ans: (2) A and B Only
Explanation: Epidiascopes and slide projectors are classified as traditional projection hardware (simple non-electronic/projected aids) compared to complex electronic teaching machines or televisions.
Q.25. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Aristotelian syllogism is deductive and formal.
B. Nyāya syllogism is deductive-inductive.
C. Nyāya philosophy regards deduction and induction as separate processes.
D. Aristotelian logic has five propositions.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) A and B Only
Explanation: Aristotelian syllogism is deductive and formal (A), and Nyaya syllogism combines both induction and deduction (deductive-inductive) (B). Aristotelian logic has three propositions, not five (Nyaya has five).
Ans: (1) A and B Only
Explanation: Aristotelian syllogism is deductive and formal (A), and Nyaya syllogism combines both induction and deduction (deductive-inductive) (B). Aristotelian logic has three propositions, not five (Nyaya has five).
Q.26. Arrange the following models of communication, chronologically as per their year of introduction, starting from the earliest:
A. Westley and Maclean
B. Osgood
C. Harold D. Lasswell
D. George Gerbner
E. Theodore M. Newcomb
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) C, E, B, D, A
Explanation: Chronological order of models: Lasswell (1948), Newcomb (1953), Osgood (1954), Gerbner (1956), Westley and MacLean (1957). Thus C, E, B, D, A.
Ans: (1) C, E, B, D, A
Explanation: Chronological order of models: Lasswell (1948), Newcomb (1953), Osgood (1954), Gerbner (1956), Westley and MacLean (1957). Thus C, E, B, D, A.
Q.27. Which of the following is the correct order of steps in a general lesson plan?
A. Recapitulation
B. Linking previous knowledge
C. Content selection
D. Formulating objectives
E. Presentation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) D, C, B, E, A
Explanation: Lesson planning steps sequence: Formulating objectives -> Content selection -> Linking previous knowledge -> Presentation -> Recapitulation.
Ans: (3) D, C, B, E, A
Explanation: Lesson planning steps sequence: Formulating objectives -> Content selection -> Linking previous knowledge -> Presentation -> Recapitulation.
Q.28. Millennium Development Goal-4 was aimed at reducing the mortality rate among children under 5 years of age by:
Ans: (1) 75%
Explanation: MDG 4 aimed to reduce the under-five mortality rate by two-thirds (roughly 75% target reduction relative to 1990).
Ans: (1) 75%
Explanation: MDG 4 aimed to reduce the under-five mortality rate by two-thirds (roughly 75% target reduction relative to 1990).
Q.29. Which of the following statements are true?
A. A necessary condition for an event refers to a circumstance in whose absence the event cannot occur.
B. A sufficient condition for an event is a circumstance in whose presence the event must occur.
C. A necessary condition for an event is a circumstance in whose presence the event must occur.
D. A sufficient condition for an event refers to a circumstance in whose absence the event cannot occur.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) A and B Only
Explanation: A necessary condition is required for the event to happen (its absence prevents occurrence, A), and a sufficient condition guarantees it (its presence ensures occurrence, B). Statements C and D are incorrect definitions.
Ans: (4) A and B Only
Explanation: A necessary condition is required for the event to happen (its absence prevents occurrence, A), and a sufficient condition guarantees it (its presence ensures occurrence, B). Statements C and D are incorrect definitions.
Q.30. According to the book “The Dynamics of Mass Communication” by Dominick (1990), what are the main functions of media?
A. Surveillance
B. Agriculture based knowledge
C. Interpretation
D. Geo-Climatic information
E. Entertainment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A, C and E Only
Explanation: Dominick’s recognized functions of mass media include surveillance, interpretation, linkage, transmission of values (socialization), and entertainment (A, C, E).
Ans: (3) A, C and E Only
Explanation: Dominick’s recognized functions of mass media include surveillance, interpretation, linkage, transmission of values (socialization), and entertainment (A, C, E).
Q.31. Which of the following are key features of positivist approach to research?
A. Reliance on qualitative techniques
B. Hypothetico-Deductive Model
C. Replicability
D. Subjective Analysis/Interpretation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) B and C Only
Explanation: Positivism relies on quantitative techniques, the hypothetico-deductive model (B), and ensures replicability (C). Qualitative and subjective analysis belong to interpretivism.
Ans: (1) B and C Only
Explanation: Positivism relies on quantitative techniques, the hypothetico-deductive model (B), and ensures replicability (C). Qualitative and subjective analysis belong to interpretivism.
Q.32. According to Bloom’s Taxonomy, what are the three domains of Learning?
Ans: (3) Affective, Psychomotor, Cognitive
Explanation: Bloom’s taxonomy categorizes educational learning objectives into three domains: Cognitive (mental skills), Affective (growth in feelings/emotional areas), and Psychomotor (manual/physical skills).
Ans: (3) Affective, Psychomotor, Cognitive
Explanation: Bloom’s taxonomy categorizes educational learning objectives into three domains: Cognitive (mental skills), Affective (growth in feelings/emotional areas), and Psychomotor (manual/physical skills).
Q.33. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Diseases) | LIST-II (Vector) |
|---|---|
| A. Malaria | I. Phlebotomus argentipes |
| B. Dengue | II. Anopheles mosquito (female) |
| C. Encephalitis | III. Aedes Aegypti |
| D. Kala-azar | IV. Culex |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Explanation: Malaria vector is Anopheles mosquito (A-II), Dengue is Aedes Aegypti (B-III), Encephalitis is Culex mosquito (C-IV), Kala-azar is sandfly / Phlebotomus argentipes (D-I).
Ans: (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Explanation: Malaria vector is Anopheles mosquito (A-II), Dengue is Aedes Aegypti (B-III), Encephalitis is Culex mosquito (C-IV), Kala-azar is sandfly / Phlebotomus argentipes (D-I).
Q.34. In which of the following types of fallacies, the premises of the argument are simply not relevant to the conclusion?
A. Ad Hominem
B. False Cause
C. Hasty Generalization
D. The Red Herring
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) A and D Only
Explanation: Ad Hominem and Red Herring are fallacies of relevance (premises are irrelevant to the conclusion). False cause is weak induction, and hasty generalization is unrepresentative sample.
Ans: (1) A and D Only
Explanation: Ad Hominem and Red Herring are fallacies of relevance (premises are irrelevant to the conclusion). False cause is weak induction, and hasty generalization is unrepresentative sample.
Q.35. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II
| LIST-I (Learning Structures) | LIST-II (Teaching Tactics) |
|---|---|
| A. Signal Learning | I. Provide opportunity for practice |
| B. Chain Learning | II. Make students to see similarities and dissimilarities among stimuli |
| C. Multiple discrimination Learning | III. Ignore incorrect response and reinforce correct one |
| D. Concept Learning | IV. Asking students to give examples |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Explanation: Signal learning relies on classical conditioning (ignore incorrect, reinforce correct – III), Chain learning requires practice linking steps (I), Multiple discrimination involves spotting similarities/dissimilarities (II), Concept learning asks for examples (IV).
Ans: (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Explanation: Signal learning relies on classical conditioning (ignore incorrect, reinforce correct – III), Chain learning requires practice linking steps (I), Multiple discrimination involves spotting similarities/dissimilarities (II), Concept learning asks for examples (IV).
Q.36. Arrange the following Green House Gases according to their relative contributions to atmospheric temperature rise (total global warming) in ascending order:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Chlorofluorocarbons
C. Methane
D. Nitrous Oxide
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) B, D, C, A
Explanation: Relative contribution to greenhouse effect from lowest to highest: CFCs (B) < Nitrous Oxide (D) < Methane (C) < Carbon dioxide (A). Thus B, D, C, A.
Ans: (1) B, D, C, A
Explanation: Relative contribution to greenhouse effect from lowest to highest: CFCs (B) < Nitrous Oxide (D) < Methane (C) < Carbon dioxide (A). Thus B, D, C, A.
Q.37. Standard deviation (S) and Mean of Squares (MS) of positive numerical values for four different populations P, Q, R and S are given in A-D below. Compute the coefficient of variation (expressed as a percentage) of these four populations and arrange them in ascending order:
A. Population P: S=12; MS=1044
B. Population Q: S=9; MS=981
C. Population R: S=20; MS=2000
D. Population S: S=10; MS=2600
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) D, B, A, C
Explanation: Calculating mean from MS and S, then computing CV for each population and sorting in ascending order yields D, B, A, C.
Ans: (2) D, B, A, C
Explanation: Calculating mean from MS and S, then computing CV for each population and sorting in ascending order yields D, B, A, C.
Q.38. Two students contested in an election in a college. One of the students got 65% of the total valid votes. There were 15% invalid votes. If there were 18000 total votes, find the number of valid votes got by the other student.
Ans: (1) 5355
Explanation: Total votes = 18000. Invalid votes = 15%, so valid votes = 85% of 18000 = 15300. Student 1 got 65% of valid votes, so the other student got 100 – 65 = 35% of valid votes. Votes got by other student = 0.35 * 15300 = 5355.
Ans: (1) 5355
Explanation: Total votes = 18000. Invalid votes = 15%, so valid votes = 85% of 18000 = 15300. Student 1 got 65% of valid votes, so the other student got 100 – 65 = 35% of valid votes. Votes got by other student = 0.35 * 15300 = 5355.
Q.39. In IQ Test measure, what are the different aspects of intelligence?
A. Verbal Intelligence
B. Emotional Intelligence
C. Numerical Intelligence
D. Linguistic Intelligence
E. Spatial Intelligence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) A, C and E Only
Explanation: Standard IQ tests measure cognitive abilities such as verbal, numerical/quantitative, and spatial intelligence (Emotional intelligence is distinct).
Ans: (4) A, C and E Only
Explanation: Standard IQ tests measure cognitive abilities such as verbal, numerical/quantitative, and spatial intelligence (Emotional intelligence is distinct).
Q.40. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPWD) Act, 2016 defines Inclusive Education as a system of education wherein:
A. Disabled students are arranged in separate classrooms.
B. Students with and without disabilities learn together
C. Different curricula are prescribed for learners with and without disabilities
D. System of teaching and learning is suitably adapted to meet the learning needs of different types of students with disabilities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) B and D Only
Explanation: RPWD Act 2016 defines inclusive education where students with and without disabilities learn together (B) and teaching systems are adapted to meet diverse learning needs (D).
Ans: (4) B and D Only
Explanation: RPWD Act 2016 defines inclusive education where students with and without disabilities learn together (B) and teaching systems are adapted to meet diverse learning needs (D).
Q.41. “Communication does not consist of the transmission of meaning. Meanings are not transmitted or transferable. Only messages are transmitted and meanings are not in the message, they are in the message users.” Who has made the above statement?
Ans: (3) Berlo
Explanation: David Berlo famously asserted in his SMCR model that meanings are not in messages, but in people/message users.
Ans: (3) Berlo
Explanation: David Berlo famously asserted in his SMCR model that meanings are not in messages, but in people/message users.
Q.42. Arrange the following substances in increasing order of their pH (lower to higher pH) values:
A. Seawater
B. Human Blood
C. Lemon Juice
D. Milk
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) C, D, B, A
Explanation: pH values: Lemon juice (~2, most acidic), Milk (~6.5), Human Blood (~7.4), Seawater (~8). Increasing order (lower to higher pH): Lemon juice (C), Milk (D), Human Blood (B), Seawater (A). Thus C, D, B, A.
Ans: (2) C, D, B, A
Explanation: pH values: Lemon juice (~2, most acidic), Milk (~6.5), Human Blood (~7.4), Seawater (~8). Increasing order (lower to higher pH): Lemon juice (C), Milk (D), Human Blood (B), Seawater (A). Thus C, D, B, A.
Q.43. Find the number that can replace the question mark (?) in the series given below:
1, 3⁄2, 2, 5⁄2, 3, 7⁄2, ?
Ans: (4) 4
Explanation: The series increases by 0.5 (or 1/2) at each step: 1, 3/2, 2, 5/2, 3, 7/2, 4.
Ans: (4) 4
Explanation: The series increases by 0.5 (or 1/2) at each step: 1, 3/2, 2, 5/2, 3, 7/2, 4.
Q.44. Seymour Cray is widely celebrated as the “Father of supercomputing” because he:
Ans: (4) Designed a series of machines that remained the fastest in the world for over three decades, roughly from 1964 to 1996.
Explanation: Seymour Cray designed a series of revolutionary supercomputers (like the CDC 6600 and Cray-1) that dominated as the world’s fastest for over three decades.
Ans: (4) Designed a series of machines that remained the fastest in the world for over three decades, roughly from 1964 to 1996.
Explanation: Seymour Cray designed a series of revolutionary supercomputers (like the CDC 6600 and Cray-1) that dominated as the world’s fastest for over three decades.
Q.45. A researcher divided subjects (participants) into two groups according to gender and then selected members from each group for her sample. What sampling method was the researcher using?
Ans: (2) Stratified
Explanation: Dividing a population into distinct subgroups (like gender) and then drawing random samples from each subgroup is known as stratified sampling.
Ans: (2) Stratified
Explanation: Dividing a population into distinct subgroups (like gender) and then drawing random samples from each subgroup is known as stratified sampling.
Read the following passage and answer the questions (46-50):
Our perception of the world is direct, immediate, and effortless, and there is no hint of any intervening operations taking place in the brain. The apparent simplicity of a perception is reinforced by the fact that our perceptions are always accurate. We rarely make mistakes when identifying people by their face or voice or in judging how hot a cup of tea is or in navigating a flight of steps. Moreover, our own perceptions nearly always agree with those of other people. Sounds, sights and smells seem to be “out there” in the world, not constructed in our head. Despite appearances to the contrary, our perceptual world is constructed in the brain by a huge mass of neurons performing complex, but hidden, operations. Three observations hint at the complexity of the brain processes involved in perception. First, a large proportion of the brain’s most highly developed structure, the cerebral cortex, is devoted entirely to perception. Vision alone consumes over half of the neurons in the cortex. Second, despite the complexity and power of modern computer technology, computer scientists have not yet succeeded in building general-purpose systems with the perceptual proficiency of even an infant. Third, as a result of brain damage through injury or disease, a small number of unfortunate individuals suffer deficits in their perceptual capabilities.
Q.46. As per the given passage, General-purpose computer systems do NOT have:
Ans: (1) perceptual proficiency
Explanation: The passage notes that computer scientists have not yet succeeded in building general-purpose systems with the “perceptual proficiency of even an infant”.
Ans: (1) perceptual proficiency
Explanation: The passage notes that computer scientists have not yet succeeded in building general-purpose systems with the “perceptual proficiency of even an infant”.
Q.47. At the surface level, perception seems to be simple by nature because it is:
Ans: (4) always accurate
Explanation: The text states: “The apparent simplicity of a perception is reinforced by the fact that our perceptions are always accurate.”
Ans: (4) always accurate
Explanation: The text states: “The apparent simplicity of a perception is reinforced by the fact that our perceptions are always accurate.”
Q.48. Some persons suffer from deficits in their capability to perceive because of:
Ans: (4) brain damage
Explanation: The passage explicitly notes: “…as a result of brain damage through injury or disease, a small number of unfortunate individuals suffer deficits in their perceptual capabilities.”
Ans: (4) brain damage
Explanation: The passage explicitly notes: “…as a result of brain damage through injury or disease, a small number of unfortunate individuals suffer deficits in their perceptual capabilities.”
Q.49. More than fifty percent of the neurons in the cortex are dedicated to:
Ans: (4) Vision
Explanation: The text states: “Vision alone consumes over half of the neurons in the cortex.”
Ans: (4) Vision
Explanation: The text states: “Vision alone consumes over half of the neurons in the cortex.”
Q.50. The structure of the brain that is highly developed, is called the:
Ans: (2) cerebral cortex
Explanation: The passage notes: “First, a large proportion of the brain’s most highly developed structure, the cerebral cortex, is devoted entirely to perception.”
Ans: (2) cerebral cortex
Explanation: The passage notes: “First, a large proportion of the brain’s most highly developed structure, the cerebral cortex, is devoted entirely to perception.”
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
You cannot copy content of this page