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Direction for Questions (1 to 5):
Study carefully the table given below and answer the question asked here under.
The following table gives the marks (out of 100) of five students (i.e. A, B, C, D and E) over the years 2021 to 2025.
| Year | A | B | C | D | E |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2021 | 75 | 82 | 75 | 84 | 74 |
| 2022 | 90 | 93 | 85 | 86 | 79 |
| 2023 | 96 | 76 | 65 | 85 | 85 |
| 2024 | 92 | 85 | 66 | 81 | 82 |
| 2025 | 86 | 82 | 73 | 80 | 83 |
Q.1. In terms of the cumulative marks from 2021 to 2025, which of the following students has scored maximum marks?
Ans: (1) A
Explanation: Calculating the sum of marks for each student from 2021 to 2025 reveals that student A has the highest cumulative total.
Ans: (1) A
Explanation: Calculating the sum of marks for each student from 2021 to 2025 reveals that student A has the highest cumulative total.
Q.2. Which year witnessed the lowest average marks attained by the students?
Ans: (3) 2023
Explanation: Calculating the average marks of all students for each respective year shows that the lowest average occurs in 2023.
Ans: (3) 2023
Explanation: Calculating the average marks of all students for each respective year shows that the lowest average occurs in 2023.
Q.3. How many students experienced continuous decrease in marks obtained from 2023 to 2025?
Ans: (1) one
Explanation: Reviewing year-by-year trends from 2023 to 2025 for each student indicates that only one student showed a continuous downward trend.
Ans: (1) one
Explanation: Reviewing year-by-year trends from 2023 to 2025 for each student indicates that only one student showed a continuous downward trend.
Q.4. What was the approximate percentage increase of marks for student C from 2023 to 2025?
Ans: (3) 12
Explanation: Student C’s marks changed from 65 in 2023 to 73 in 2025, yielding an approximate percentage increase of 12 percent.
Ans: (3) 12
Explanation: Student C’s marks changed from 65 in 2023 to 73 in 2025, yielding an approximate percentage increase of 12 percent.
Q.5. If we compare the cumulative combined marks of students A and B over the years with those of students C and D, then the marks scored by A and B together are more than those scored by C and D, by approximately what percent?
Ans: (3) 15
Explanation: Comparing the combined totals of students A and B against C and D shows an approximate excess of 15 percent.
Ans: (3) 15
Explanation: Comparing the combined totals of students A and B against C and D shows an approximate excess of 15 percent.
Q.6. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Certain degree of intelligence is required for creative thinking.
Reason (R): Students with high intelligence are not necessarily creative.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: Both statements are independently true in educational psychology; a threshold of intelligence is necessary for creativity, but high intelligence does not guarantee creative output.
Ans: (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: Both statements are independently true in educational psychology; a threshold of intelligence is necessary for creativity, but high intelligence does not guarantee creative output.
Q.7. Match List I with List – II.
| List – I | List – II |
|---|---|
| A. Writing Disability | I. Gender Identities |
| B. Socio-Economically Disadvantaged Group | II. Dysgraphia |
| C. National Mission for Mentoring | III. PARAKH |
| D. National Assessment Centre | IV. NCTE |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
To find the correct match between List I and List II, let’s analyze each item:
A. Writing Disability matches with II. Dysgraphia (a specific learning disability that affects writing abilities).
B. Socio-Economically Disadvantaged Group aligns with I. Gender Identities (often categorized under inclusive education frameworks addressing equity for disadvantaged and marginalized groups).
C. National Mission for Mentoring matches with IV. NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education, which oversees teacher training and mentoring programs).
D. National Assessment Centre matches with III. PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development, set up under NCERT as India’s national assessment centre).
Matching them together:
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Therefore, the correct option is (3).
To find the correct match between List I and List II, let’s analyze each item:
A. Writing Disability matches with II. Dysgraphia (a specific learning disability that affects writing abilities).
B. Socio-Economically Disadvantaged Group aligns with I. Gender Identities (often categorized under inclusive education frameworks addressing equity for disadvantaged and marginalized groups).
C. National Mission for Mentoring matches with IV. NCTE (National Council for Teacher Education, which oversees teacher training and mentoring programs).
D. National Assessment Centre matches with III. PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development, set up under NCERT as India’s national assessment centre).
Matching them together:
A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Therefore, the correct option is (3).
Q.8. As per the information processing approach of learning, which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Ans: (4) This approach doesn’t categorize the types of knowledge.
Explanation: The information processing approach extensively categorizes types of knowledge (such as declarative, procedural, and conditional knowledge), making statement 4 incorrect.
Ans: (4) This approach doesn’t categorize the types of knowledge.
Explanation: The information processing approach extensively categorizes types of knowledge (such as declarative, procedural, and conditional knowledge), making statement 4 incorrect.
Q.9. Arrange the following sheaths of personality from lower order to higher order:
A. Anandmaya Kosh (Blissful Sheath)
B. Pranmaya Kosh (Vital Sheath)
C. Annamay Kosh (Physical Sheath)
D. Vijnanmaya Kosh (Intellect Sheath)
E. Manomaya Kosh (Mental Sheath)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
In yogic philosophy (derived from the Taittiriya Upanishad), the human personality is understood through the Pancha Kosha (Five Sheaths), which range from the gross physical layer to the subtlest spiritual layer.
Arranging them in ascending order from lower order (gross/outermost) to higher order (subtle/innermost):
C. Annamaya Kosh (Physical/Food Sheath) – The gross physical body sustained by food.
B. Pranmaya Kosh (Vital/Energy Sheath) – The life force or breath that animates the physical body.
E. Manomaya Kosh (Mental Sheath) – The lower mind, emotions, and sensory processing.
D. Vijnanmaya Kosh (Intellect/Wisdom Sheath) – The higher intellect, discernment, and ego awareness.
A. Anandmaya Kosh (Blissful Sheath) – The causal body and innermost layer of pure joy and peace.
Therefore, the correct sequence is C, B, E, D, A.
Correct Answer: (2) C, B, E, D, A
In yogic philosophy (derived from the Taittiriya Upanishad), the human personality is understood through the Pancha Kosha (Five Sheaths), which range from the gross physical layer to the subtlest spiritual layer.
Arranging them in ascending order from lower order (gross/outermost) to higher order (subtle/innermost):
C. Annamaya Kosh (Physical/Food Sheath) – The gross physical body sustained by food.
B. Pranmaya Kosh (Vital/Energy Sheath) – The life force or breath that animates the physical body.
E. Manomaya Kosh (Mental Sheath) – The lower mind, emotions, and sensory processing.
D. Vijnanmaya Kosh (Intellect/Wisdom Sheath) – The higher intellect, discernment, and ego awareness.
A. Anandmaya Kosh (Blissful Sheath) – The causal body and innermost layer of pure joy and peace.
Therefore, the correct sequence is C, B, E, D, A.
Correct Answer: (2) C, B, E, D, A
Q.10. Being a constructivist teacher, you will NOT do what?
Ans: (4) Giving study materials to learners to recall the contents proficiently.
Explanation: Constructivist pedagogy focuses on active knowledge construction, sense-making, and integration rather than rote memorization and recall of study materials.
Ans: (4) Giving study materials to learners to recall the contents proficiently.
Explanation: Constructivist pedagogy focuses on active knowledge construction, sense-making, and integration rather than rote memorization and recall of study materials.
Q.11. A box plot is useful for displaying information on:
A. outliers
B. correlation
C. median
D. autocovariance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A and C Only
Explanation: Box plots visually summarize data distributions, specifically highlighting medians, quartiles, and outliers, but do not display correlation or autocovariance.
Ans: (3) A and C Only
Explanation: Box plots visually summarize data distributions, specifically highlighting medians, quartiles, and outliers, but do not display correlation or autocovariance.
Q.12. Identify the correct sequence of steps in the process of deduction from the following:
A. Data Collection
B. Hypothesis Testing
C. Theory
D. Findings
E. Hypothesis Formulation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) C, E, A, D, B
Explanation: Deductive reasoning starts from existing Theory (C), leads to Hypothesis Formulation (E), Data Collection (A), Findings (D), and finally Hypothesis Testing/Evaluation (B).
Ans: (2) C, E, A, D, B
Explanation: Deductive reasoning starts from existing Theory (C), leads to Hypothesis Formulation (E), Data Collection (A), Findings (D), and finally Hypothesis Testing/Evaluation (B).
Q.13. Match List – I with List – II.
| List – I (Mixed Method Design) | List – II (Nature) | |
|---|---|---|
| A. | QUAN ⟶ qual | I. Exploratory sequential design |
| B. | QUAL quan | II. Explanatory sequential design |
| C. | QUAL ⟶ quan | III. Embedded design |
| D. | QUAN + QUAL | IV. Convergent parallel design |
Correct Answer: Option (4) — A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
Therefore, option (4) is correct.
Correct Answer: Option (4) — A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
Therefore, option (4) is correct.
Q.14. Qualitative content analysis of documents relating to different time periods, pertains to which of the following research designs?
Ans: (2) longitudinal
Explanation: Analyzing documents across different time periods to study changes over time corresponds to a longitudinal research design.
Ans: (2) longitudinal
Explanation: Analyzing documents across different time periods to study changes over time corresponds to a longitudinal research design.
Q.15. If we suggest that x causes y, can we be sure that it is x that is responsible for the variation in y? This relates to:
Ans: (3) internal validity
Explanation: Internal validity evaluates whether causal relationships between independent and dependent variables are genuine and free from confounding factors.
Ans: (3) internal validity
Explanation: Internal validity evaluates whether causal relationships between independent and dependent variables are genuine and free from confounding factors.
Q.16. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): People who are shown Television news edited to draw attention to a particular problem, assign greater importance to that problem.
Reason (R): People learn how much importance to attach to an issue or topic from the emphasis the mass media places upon it.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: This describes the agenda-setting function of mass media, where media emphasis (Reason) dictates public perception and issue importance (Assertion).
Ans: (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: This describes the agenda-setting function of mass media, where media emphasis (Reason) dictates public perception and issue importance (Assertion).
Q.17. Arrange the following in sequence according to Nowak and Warneryd’s model of a communication campaign.
A. Manipulative Factors
B. Receiving Group
C. Obtained Effect
D. Intended Effect
E. Points of Departure
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) E, D, B, A, C
Explanation: Nowak and Warneryd’s campaign model follows: Points of departure (E) -> Intended effect (D) -> Receiving group (B) -> Manipulative factors (A) -> Obtained effect (C).
Ans: (3) E, D, B, A, C
Explanation: Nowak and Warneryd’s campaign model follows: Points of departure (E) -> Intended effect (D) -> Receiving group (B) -> Manipulative factors (A) -> Obtained effect (C).
Q.18. Match List – I with List – II.
| List – I (Term) | List – II (Meaning/Related with) |
|---|---|
| A. Affirmation | I. Attempt to undermine an image |
| B. Reaffirmation | II. Creation of a particular mental image for the audience |
| C. Purification | III. Refining a previously established image for the audience |
| D. Subversion | IV. Revitalizing an image for the audience |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Explanation:
A. Affirmation – II: Creation of a particular mental image for the audience.
B. Reaffirmation – IV: Revitalizing an image for the audience.
C. Purification – III: Refining a previously established image for the audience.
D. Subversion – I: Attempt to undermine an image.
Correct Answer: (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Explanation:
A. Affirmation – II: Creation of a particular mental image for the audience.
B. Reaffirmation – IV: Revitalizing an image for the audience.
C. Purification – III: Refining a previously established image for the audience.
D. Subversion – I: Attempt to undermine an image.
Q.19. View of mass communication as the representation of shared belief where reality is produced, maintained, repaired, and transformed, is known as the:
Ans: (3) Ritual Perspective
Explanation: James Carey defined the ritual perspective of communication as directed toward sharing, association, and the maintenance of a society in time.
Ans: (3) Ritual Perspective
Explanation: James Carey defined the ritual perspective of communication as directed toward sharing, association, and the maintenance of a society in time.
Q.20. The study of the communicative effect of time is known as:
Ans: (1) Chronemics
Explanation: Chronemics is the study of the use of time in nonverbal communication.
Ans: (1) Chronemics
Explanation: Chronemics is the study of the use of time in nonverbal communication.
Q.21. Three years ago, the average age of a family of 5 members was 17 years. A baby was born, but the average age of the family is still the same today. The present age of the baby is:
Ans: (3) 2 years
Explanation: Sum of ages of 5 members 3 years ago = 5 * 17 = 85. Today, total age of these 5 members = 85 + (5 * 3) = 100. With 6 members today, total age = 6 * 17 = 102. Therefore, baby’s present age = 102 – 100 = 2 years.
Ans: (3) 2 years
Explanation: Sum of ages of 5 members 3 years ago = 5 * 17 = 85. Today, total age of these 5 members = 85 + (5 * 3) = 100. With 6 members today, total age = 6 * 17 = 102. Therefore, baby’s present age = 102 – 100 = 2 years.
Q.22. The next term in the following series is:
CMO, FPR, ISU, ?
Ans: (3) LVX
Explanation: First letters: C(+3)->F(+3)->I(+3)->L. Second letters: M(+3)->P(+3)->S(+3)->V. Third letters: O(+3)->R(+3)->U(+3)->X. Thus, LVX.
Ans: (3) LVX
Explanation: First letters: C(+3)->F(+3)->I(+3)->L. Second letters: M(+3)->P(+3)->S(+3)->V. Third letters: O(+3)->R(+3)->U(+3)->X. Thus, LVX.
Q.23. Arrange the following fractions in ascending order:
A. 5/8
B. 7/12
C. 13/16
D. 16/29
E. 3/4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) D < B < A < E < C
Explanation: Converting to decimals: D = 0.551, B = 0.583, A = 0.625, E = 0.75, C = 0.8125. Arranging in ascending order gives D < B < A < E < C.
Ans: (3) D < B < A < E < C
Explanation: Converting to decimals: D = 0.551, B = 0.583, A = 0.625, E = 0.75, C = 0.8125. Arranging in ascending order gives D < B < A < E < C.
Q.24. Identify the correct mathematical statement(s):
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) B and D Only
Explanation: Statement A is false (profit is 11.11%). Statement B evaluates to $14/2 + 7/2 – 5/3 = 13/2$ (correct). Statement C is false (should be $73/77$). Statement D evaluates to $1/0.04 = 25$ (correct).
Ans: (1) B and D Only
Explanation: Statement A is false (profit is 11.11%). Statement B evaluates to $14/2 + 7/2 – 5/3 = 13/2$ (correct). Statement C is false (should be $73/77$). Statement D evaluates to $1/0.04 = 25$ (correct).
Q.25. Match List I with List – II.
| Word | Code |
|---|---|
| A. BROWN | I. 50 |
| B. TRING | II. 72 |
| C. APPLE | III. 67 |
| D. WATER | IV. 68 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
To solve this question, we need to find the numerical code for each word by summing the alphabetical positions of its letters (where $\text{A}=1, \text{B}=2, \dots, \text{Z}=26$):
A. BROWN:$\text{B}(2) + \text{R}(18) + \text{O}(15) + \text{W}(23) + \text{N}(14) = 72 \rightarrow$ II
B. TRING:$\text{T}(20) + \text{R}(18) + \text{I}(9) + \text{N}(14) + \text{G}(7) = 68 \rightarrow$ IV
C. APPLE:$\text{A}(1) + \text{P}(16) + \text{P}(16) + \text{L}(12) + \text{E}(5) = 50 \rightarrow$ I
D. WATER:$\text{W}(23) + \text{A}(1) + \text{T}(20) + \text{E}(5) + \text{R}(18) = 67 \rightarrow$ III
Matching List I with List II gives: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.
Correct Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
To solve this question, we need to find the numerical code for each word by summing the alphabetical positions of its letters (where $\text{A}=1, \text{B}=2, \dots, \text{Z}=26$):
A. BROWN:$\text{B}(2) + \text{R}(18) + \text{O}(15) + \text{W}(23) + \text{N}(14) = 72 \rightarrow$ II
B. TRING:$\text{T}(20) + \text{R}(18) + \text{I}(9) + \text{N}(14) + \text{G}(7) = 68 \rightarrow$ IV
C. APPLE:$\text{A}(1) + \text{P}(16) + \text{P}(16) + \text{L}(12) + \text{E}(5) = 50 \rightarrow$ I
D. WATER:$\text{W}(23) + \text{A}(1) + \text{T}(20) + \text{E}(5) + \text{R}(18) = 67 \rightarrow$ III
Matching List I with List II gives: A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III.
Correct Answer: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Q.26. All bipeds are rational.
Swans are bipeds.
_________________
.: Swans are rational.
commits the fallacy (hetvābhāsa) of:
Ans: (1) Asiddha
Explanation: The middle term ‘bipeds’ is unproven or unreal in establishing rationality for swans as intended, or represents Asiddha (unproven middle term).
Ans: (1) Asiddha
Explanation: The middle term ‘bipeds’ is unproven or unreal in establishing rationality for swans as intended, or represents Asiddha (unproven middle term).
Q.27. Match List – I with List – II.
| List – I (Standard Form Categorical Propositions) | List – II (Symbolic Representation) |
|---|---|
| A. All S is P. | I. SP≠0 |
| B. No S is P. | II. SP̄≠0 |
| C. Some S is P. | III. SP=0 |
| D. Some S is not P. | IV. SP̄=0 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Explanation: Boolean interpretations: All S is P means $S\bar{P} = 0$ (A-IV); No S is P means $SP = 0$ (B-III); Some S is P means $SP \neq 0$ (C-I); Some S is not P means $S\bar{P} \neq 0$ (D-II).
Ans: (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Explanation: Boolean interpretations: All S is P means $S\bar{P} = 0$ (A-IV); No S is P means $SP = 0$ (B-III); Some S is P means $SP \neq 0$ (C-I); Some S is not P means $S\bar{P} \neq 0$ (D-II).
Q.28. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): An argument can never be valid, if all the premises are false and conclusion is false as well.
Reason (R): If an argument is valid and its premises are true, we may be certain that its conclusion is true also.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Explanation: Assertion is false because valid arguments can have false premises and a false conclusion. Reason is correct as it defines the core property of a sound/valid deductive argument with true premises.
Ans: (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Explanation: Assertion is false because valid arguments can have false premises and a false conclusion. Reason is correct as it defines the core property of a sound/valid deductive argument with true premises.
Q.29. Which of the following are true?
A. Some valid arguments contain false premises and a false conclusion.
B. An argument can be invalid even if all the premises are true and the conclusion is true as well.
C. When an argument is valid and all of its premises are true, it is called sound argument.
D. The truth or falsity of the premises in an argument does not determine the soundness of the argument.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) A, B and C Only
Explanation: Statements A, B, and C correctly describe logical principles of validity and soundness. Statement D is false because premise truth is essential for soundness.
Ans: (1) A, B and C Only
Explanation: Statements A, B, and C correctly describe logical principles of validity and soundness. Statement D is false because premise truth is essential for soundness.
Q.30. Which of the following are true?
A. In Equivocation fallacy, two or more meanings of the same word create confusion.
B. Amphiboly is not a fallacy of Ambiguity.
C. Accent is a fallacy that moves in a circle.
D. Composition and division are fallacies of ambiguity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (1) A and D Only
Explanation: Equivocation (A) and Composition/Division (D) are fallacies of ambiguity. Amphiboly is a fallacy of ambiguity (making B incorrect), and begging the question is circular (making C incorrect).
Ans: (1) A and D Only
Explanation: Equivocation (A) and Composition/Division (D) are fallacies of ambiguity. Amphiboly is a fallacy of ambiguity (making B incorrect), and begging the question is circular (making C incorrect).
Q.31. Identify the correct logical sequence for programming:
A. Compilation
B. Editing
C. Linking
D. Execution
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct logical sequence for programming is (4) B, A, C, D.
B. Editing: Writing or modifying the source code.
A. Compilation: Translating the source code into machine or object code.
C. Linking: Combining object files and necessary libraries to create a single executable file.
D. Execution: Running the compiled program.
The correct logical sequence for programming is (4) B, A, C, D.
B. Editing: Writing or modifying the source code.
A. Compilation: Translating the source code into machine or object code.
C. Linking: Combining object files and necessary libraries to create a single executable file.
D. Execution: Running the compiled program.
Q.32. Which of the following fall in the category of primary memory?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Cache
D. HDD
E. SSD
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) A, B and C Only
Explanation: ROM, RAM, and Cache memory are classified as primary/main memory, whereas HDDs and SSDs are secondary/storage devices.
Ans: (4) A, B and C Only
Explanation: ROM, RAM, and Cache memory are classified as primary/main memory, whereas HDDs and SSDs are secondary/storage devices.
Q.33. Match List I with List – II.
| List – I | List – II |
|---|---|
| A. Phishing | I. Malicious code installed on a user’s computer or a web server |
| B. Pharming | II. Creator sends out legitimate-looking emails to target users |
| C. Spyware | III. Code that can replicate itself with the intention of deleting or corrupting files on the computer |
| D. Virus | IV. Software that gathers data by monitoring key presses on a user’s computer keyboard |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.
A. Phishing – II. The creator sends out legitimate-looking emails (spoofing trusted entities) to target users to trick them into revealing sensitive information like passwords or credit card numbers.
B. Pharming – Malicious code (or DNS cache poisoning) is installed on a user’s computer or a web server to maliciously redirect website traffic to a fake, fraudulent website.
C. Spyware – IV. Software that covertly gathers data by monitoring key presses (keylogging) or user activity without their consent.
D. Virus – III. A self-replicating program code that attaches itself to other files or programs with the intention of deleting, corrupting, or disrupting system files.
The correct answer is (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.
A. Phishing – II. The creator sends out legitimate-looking emails (spoofing trusted entities) to target users to trick them into revealing sensitive information like passwords or credit card numbers.
B. Pharming – Malicious code (or DNS cache poisoning) is installed on a user’s computer or a web server to maliciously redirect website traffic to a fake, fraudulent website.
C. Spyware – IV. Software that covertly gathers data by monitoring key presses (keylogging) or user activity without their consent.
D. Virus – III. A self-replicating program code that attaches itself to other files or programs with the intention of deleting, corrupting, or disrupting system files.
Q.34. Which term is not related to computer hardware?
Ans: (3) Algorithm
Explanation: An algorithm is a logical step-by-step procedure or software logic concept, whereas motherboard, registers, and flip-flops are hardware components.
Ans: (3) Algorithm
Explanation: An algorithm is a logical step-by-step procedure or software logic concept, whereas motherboard, registers, and flip-flops are hardware components.
Q.35. Which aspect of security ensures that information is not altered by any unauthorised person?
Ans: (2) Integrity
Explanation: Data integrity ensures that information remains accurate and unaltered by unauthorized parties during storage or transmission.
Ans: (2) Integrity
Explanation: Data integrity ensures that information remains accurate and unaltered by unauthorized parties during storage or transmission.
Q.36. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Increase in average sea surface temperature will contribute towards enhancement of atmospheric CO₂ concentration.
Reason (R): Increase in sea surface temperature increases the solubility of CO₂ in ocean water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Explanation: Higher sea surface temperatures decrease the solubility of CO2 in water, releasing more CO2 into the atmosphere (making Reason false while Assertion is true).
Ans: (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Explanation: Higher sea surface temperatures decrease the solubility of CO2 in water, releasing more CO2 into the atmosphere (making Reason false while Assertion is true).
Q.37. Suppose the water of a lake is contaminated by a pesticide. Arrange the following in the increasing order of accumulated concentration of the pesticide in the lake ecosystem.
A. Water
B. Zooplankton
C. Phytoplankton
D. Fish
E. Bird
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (3) A, C, B, D, E
Explanation: Due to biomagnification, pesticide concentration increases through the food chain: Water (A) -> Phytoplankton (C) -> Zooplankton (B) -> Fish (D) -> Bird (E).
Ans: (3) A, C, B, D, E
Explanation: Due to biomagnification, pesticide concentration increases through the food chain: Water (A) -> Phytoplankton (C) -> Zooplankton (B) -> Fish (D) -> Bird (E).
Q.38. Match List I with List – II.
| List – I (Disaster) | List – II (Related Term) |
|---|---|
| A. Tropical Cyclone | I. Solifluction |
| B. Landslides | II. Shock waves |
| C. Drought | III. Storm surges |
| D. Earthquake | IV. Famine |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Explanation: Tropical cyclones cause storm surges (A-III); Landslides involve solifluction/soil movement (B-I); Droughts lead to famine (C-IV); Earthquakes generate shock waves (D-II).
Ans: (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Explanation: Tropical cyclones cause storm surges (A-III); Landslides involve solifluction/soil movement (B-I); Droughts lead to famine (C-IV); Earthquakes generate shock waves (D-II).
Q.39. The Blue-Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of ________ in drinking water.
Ans: (3) Nitrate
Explanation: High levels of nitrates in drinking water cause methemoglobinemia, commonly known as Blue-Baby Syndrome.
Ans: (3) Nitrate
Explanation: High levels of nitrates in drinking water cause methemoglobinemia, commonly known as Blue-Baby Syndrome.
Q.40. The biogas is a mixture of:
The correct answer is (2) Methane and hydrogen.
Biogas is a clean, renewable energy source produced by the anaerobic digestion (breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen) of organic wastes such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, and plant material.
Its primary constituents are methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂), along with smaller amounts of hydrogen (H₂), nitrogen, and hydrogen sulfide. Among the given options, Methane and hydrogen is the correct choice.
The correct answer is (2) Methane and hydrogen.
Biogas is a clean, renewable energy source produced by the anaerobic digestion (breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen) of organic wastes such as agricultural waste, manure, municipal waste, and plant material.
Its primary constituents are methane (CH₄) and carbon dioxide (CO₂), along with smaller amounts of hydrogen (H₂), nitrogen, and hydrogen sulfide. Among the given options, Methane and hydrogen is the correct choice.
Q.41. In the National Education Policy-2020, which body has been proposed to frame ‘graduate attributes’ for higher education programme?
Ans: (4) General Education Council
Explanation: Under NEP 2020, the General Education Council (GEC) is mandated to frame the National Higher Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF) and establish graduate attributes.
Ans: (4) General Education Council
Explanation: Under NEP 2020, the General Education Council (GEC) is mandated to frame the National Higher Education Qualification Framework (NHEQF) and establish graduate attributes.
Q.42. Which among the following is not true with regards to the UGC guidelines (2022) for pursuing two academic programmes simultaneously?
Ans: (4) A student can pursue one full time academic programmes along with Ph.D. in physical mode.
Explanation: UGC guidelines of 2022 allow pursuing two academic programs simultaneously in various modes, but explicitly exclude Ph.D. programs from being pursued concurrently with another full-time regular course.
Ans: (4) A student can pursue one full time academic programmes along with Ph.D. in physical mode.
Explanation: UGC guidelines of 2022 allow pursuing two academic programs simultaneously in various modes, but explicitly exclude Ph.D. programs from being pursued concurrently with another full-time regular course.
Q.43. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Education builds character, and enables learners to be ethical, rational, compassionate, and caring.
Reason (R): Our current education policy proposes curriculum and pedagogy of Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) to develop among the students a deep sense of respect towards the fundamental duties and constitutional values.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Ans: (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: Both statements are true policy principles regarding holistic character education and constitutional values, but Reason is not the direct causal explanation of Assertion.
Ans: (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Explanation: Both statements are true policy principles regarding holistic character education and constitutional values, but Reason is not the direct causal explanation of Assertion.
Q.44. Arrange the following bodies in the chronological order of their establishment:
A. University Grants Commission
B. Central Advisory Board on Education
C. National Educational Technology Forum
D. Indira Gandhi National Open University
E. National Medical Commission
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Ans: (4) B, A, D, E, C
Explanation: Chronological establishment order: CABE (1920), UGC (1956), IGNOU (1985), National Medical Commission (2020), NETF (NEP 2020). Order: B, A, D, E, C.
Ans: (4) B, A, D, E, C
Explanation: Chronological establishment order: CABE (1920), UGC (1956), IGNOU (1985), National Medical Commission (2020), NETF (NEP 2020). Order: B, A, D, E, C.
Q.45. Match List I with List – II.
| List – I (Body of a University) | List – II (Function) |
|---|---|
| A. Court/Senate | I. Principle decision making body on academic matters |
| B. Executive Council | II. To review and advise on the broad policies of the university |
| C. Academic Council | III. Highest decision making body having members from various fields |
| D. Board of Studies | IV. Department specific academic body |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
The correct answer is (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
A. Court / Senate – II. To review and advise on the broad policies of the university, acting as a broad review and advisory body.
B. Executive Council – III. The highest executive/decision-making body consisting of members from various administrative and academic fields.
C. Academic Council – I. Principal decision-making body responsible for academic matters, standards, curriculum, and evaluation.
D. Board of Studies – IV. A department-specific academic body that handles subject-specific matters and syllabus framing.
The correct answer is (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV.
A. Court / Senate – II. To review and advise on the broad policies of the university, acting as a broad review and advisory body.
B. Executive Council – III. The highest executive/decision-making body consisting of members from various administrative and academic fields.
C. Academic Council – I. Principal decision-making body responsible for academic matters, standards, curriculum, and evaluation.
D. Board of Studies – IV. A department-specific academic body that handles subject-specific matters and syllabus framing.
Read the following passage and answer the questions (46-50):
John B. Watson, an animal experimentalist who argued that all human action is merely a conditioned response to external environmental stimuli, first popularized stimulus-response psychology. Watson’s theory became known as behaviorism in recognition of its narrow focus on isolated human behaviors. Behaviorists rejected psychology’s widely held assumption that higher mental processes (that is, conscious thought or reflection) ordinarily control human action. In contrast to such “mentalist” views, behaviorists argued that the only purpose served by consciousness was to rationalize behaviors after they are triggered by external stimuli. Behaviorists attempted to purge all mentalist terms from their theories and to deal strictly with observable variables environmental stimuli on the one hand and behaviors on the other. By studying the associations that existed between specific stimuli and specific behaviors, behaviorists hoped to discover previously unknown causes for action. One of the central notions in behaviorism was the idea of conditioning. Behaviorists argued that most human behavior is the result of conditioning by the external environment. We are conditioned to act in certain ways by positive and negative stimuli we act to gain rewards or avoid punishments.
Q.46. Behaviorists do not recognise which of the following in their study of human action?
Ans: (1) Conscious thought
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that behaviorists rejected the assumption that higher mental processes or conscious thought control human action.
Ans: (1) Conscious thought
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that behaviorists rejected the assumption that higher mental processes or conscious thought control human action.
Q.47. In the passage, instead of the word ‘purge’, which of the following words can be used:
Ans: (4) cleanse
Explanation: In this context, ‘purge’ means to rid of or cleanse theories of mentalist terms.
Ans: (4) cleanse
Explanation: In this context, ‘purge’ means to rid of or cleanse theories of mentalist terms.
Q.48. According to Behaviorism, all human action is:
Ans: (3) Conditioned response
Explanation: The passage notes that Watson argued that all human action is merely a conditioned response to external environmental stimuli.
Ans: (3) Conditioned response
Explanation: The passage notes that Watson argued that all human action is merely a conditioned response to external environmental stimuli.
Q.49. One widely – held assumption of Psychology is that:
Ans: (1) Conscious thought usually controls human action.
Explanation: The passage refers to psychology’s widely held assumption that higher mental processes or conscious thought ordinarily control human action.
Ans: (1) Conscious thought usually controls human action.
Explanation: The passage refers to psychology’s widely held assumption that higher mental processes or conscious thought ordinarily control human action.
Q.50. When people want a reward, they behave in a certain way because of:
Ans: (2) positive stimulus
Explanation: The passage concludes that we act to gain rewards (positive stimuli) or avoid punishments.
Ans: (2) positive stimulus
Explanation: The passage concludes that we act to gain rewards (positive stimuli) or avoid punishments.
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